2024 VTNE Surgical Nursing Exam 1

Study Guides Aug 19, 2025
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2024 VTNE Surgical Nursing Exam 1 GRADED A+ (ACTUAL EXAM ) Questions and Answers (Solved)

  • Which of the following is NOT a component of an incisional dehiscence
  • secondary to infection?Swelling Purulent discharge Pain Cold to the touch

Answer: Cold to the touch

Explanation Incisional dehiscences are very serious, and the sooner they are identified the better.When dealing with an abdominal or thoracic incision, it is that much more important to recognize a problem early before there are life-threatening consequences as a result of incision failure. An infection is characterized by all the cardinal signs of inflammation (redness, pain, swelling, heat) as well as purulent discharge.

  • Removal of sutures or staples before an incision has healed can result in
  • unwanted complications. What is the typically recommended time window for suture/staple removal?

20-28 days after surgery 10-14 days after surgery 14-19 days after surgery 5-7 days after surgery

Answer: 10-14 days after surgery

Explanation Incisions will usually be sufficiently strong by 10-14 days after surgery and will no longer require skin sutures/staples. Leaving the sutures/staples in longer than 14 days can result in unwanted suture or staple reaction and is of no benefit to the incision.

  • What type of folding method is preferred for cloth drapes that would allow for
  • easy unfolding and placement of the drape?

Triangle folding Square folding Diagonal folding Accordion folding

Answer: Accordion folding

Explanation 1 / 4

Cloth drapes should be packed such that they can easily be unfolded while main- taining sterility. An accordion-type of fold will achieve this goal. The other answer choices are not used.

  • When is generally considered the optimal time to spay a dog?

At approximately 6 months of age Anytime after the second estrus, but before the third Anytime after the third estrus At 2 years of age

Answer: At approximately 6 months of age

Explanation Spaying before the first estrus dramatically reduces the lifetime likelihood of de- veloping mammary neoplasia. Dogs that are spayed after the first estrus have an 8% chance of developing mammary neoplasia. Dogs spayed after the second estrus have a 24% chance of developing mammary neoplasia. Performing a spay at the time of estrus can be done but is not recommended, as the uterus is highly vascularized at this time, and the chances of complications or excessive bleeding may be greater. It is usually recommended to perform a spay 3-4 months after estrus (if the dog went into estrus).

  • A tibial fracture needs to be repaired. The surgeon is intending to place a bone
  • plate on the medial aspect of the tibia. How should the patient be positioned and prepped?Lateral recumbency with affected side down Lateral recumbency with affected side up Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped

Dorsal recumbency with leg tied to the table Answer: Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped.Explanation The best positioning is that which will allow the surgeon good access to the proposed surgical site while ideally keeping the patient comfortable. Any time surgery is being performed on the tibia, the leg should be hung while it is being prepped for surgery.Sometimes the surgeon will prefer the leg to stay hung while performing the repair.Such an approach helps maintain retraction on the bone fragments and thus reduce the fracture. This is common practice when placing external fixators.

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When placing bone plates, the surgeon will usually opt to "cut" the leg down and lay it such that the lateral side is against the surgery table. This will allow for an incision into the medial aspect of the tibia. This is the preferred location as there is not nearly as much musculature on this side. This allows an easier approach and dissection, and reduces morbidity. Therefore the best answer is to have the patient in dorsal recumbency with the limb temporarily hung until the patient is draped.

  • The pancreas connects to which part of the intestine?

Ileum Jejunum Duodenum Cecum

Answer: Duodenum

Explanation The pancreas connects to the duodenum (the first segment of the small intestine). It secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct.

  • An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out
  • through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type?

Compound Spiral Greenstick Comminuted

Answer: Compound

Explanation

Fracture types:

Oblique - a fracture which goes at an angle to the axis Comminuted - a fracture of many relatively small fragments Spiral - a fracture which runs around the axis of the bone Compound - a fracture which breaks the skin Greenstick - a fracture of soft bone where the bone can bend and be partially broken, seen in young animals

  • Which of the following delays wound healing?

Increased blood supply Jagged edges Bed of granulation tissue Infection

Answer: Infection

Explanation Bacteria and inflammation from infection cause direct cellular damage. This can cause separation of tissues, which leads to infection and delays healing time.

  • / 4

Granulation tissue is a normal part of healing unless it becomes exuberant.Other factors which delay healing include corticosteroid administration or immuno- suppression, poor blood supply, and hypoproteinemia.

  • A puppy presents for his caudectomy procedure. What is being performed?

Tail removal Testicle removal Dewclaw removal Soft palate repair

Answer: Tail removal

Explanation Caudectomy is the removal of an animal's tail. Tail "docking" and tail amputation are caudectomy procedures.

  • An "FHO" would most likely be performed on a patient with which of the
  • following problems?

Ovarian cysts Incontinence Blindness from glaucoma Arthritic hip

Answer: Arthritic hip

Explanation "FHO" stands for Femoral Head Osteotomy. This procedure is removal of the femoral head from the hip joint. It is often performed when there is severe arthritis of a hip or due to fracture or disease from trauma to that hip joint.

  • Which of the following forceps is most appropriate for use in reducing a
  • fracture?

Kelly forceps Kern forceps Rochester-Oschner forceps Rochester-Carmalt forceps

Answer: Kern forceps

Explanation The Kern bone-holding forceps have gripping teeth that allow them to manipulate bone fragments without slipping from the bone.

Rochester-Oschner forceps are thin in comparison to Kern forceps. They have a "rat- tooth-like" end and are not suitable for manipulating bone. Similarly, Kelly and Rochester-Carmalt forceps are thin and not designed to manipulate bone.

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Category: Study Guides
Added: Aug 19, 2025
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2024 VTNE Surgical Nursing Exam 1 GRADED A+ (ACTUAL EXAM ) Questions and Answers (Solved) 1. Which of the following is NOT a component of an incisional dehiscence secondary to infection? Swelling P...

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