pg. 1 2025 Evolve Maternity/ Obstetrics Exam Test Bank With 600 Practice Questions and Correct Verified Answers / Obstetric Evolve Hesi Exam/ Evolve OB Exam 2025 Qs And Answers (Brand New!)
A 36-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal cramping and heavy bleeding. She informs the nurse that she is 10 weeks pregnant. Cervical examination reveals heavy bleeding; the cervical os is open and tissue is present. Which type of miscarriage is the client experiencing?1 Missed 2 Complete 3 Inevitable 4 Threatened - ANSWER-3 Miscarriage is inevitable because the cervical os has opened, heavy bleeding is occurring, and tissue is present with the bleeding. In a missed miscarriage, the fetus has died but the products of conception are retained in utero for as long as several weeks. There may be no bleeding or cramping, and the os is closed. In a complete miscarriage all fetal tissue has already passed and the cervix is closed; there may be slight bleeding. Symptoms of a threatened miscarriage include spotting and a closed cervical os. There may be mild cramping.
A 20-year-old woman comes into the clinic after missing her menstrual period 2 weeks ago and says that she suspects that she is pregnant. As the nurse is reviewing her medications, the client says that she is taking isotretinoin
(Accutane). The nurse knows that isotretinoin is:
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pg. 2 Used to suppress hunger in individuals trying to lose weight, so she should stop taking the medication 2 Often used to treat migraines associated with hormonal changes and should be safe for continued use as needed 3 Teratogenic and associated with major fetal malformations, so the client should stop the medication immediately 4 An atypical antipsychotic, and the woman needs to make an immediate appointment with her mental health care provider to discuss alternative medications - ANSWER-3 Isotretinoin (Accutane) is used to treat severe acne that has not responded to other forms of treatment. It is teratogenic, and pregnancy should be avoided by female clients taking the medication. Isotretinoin is not used to treat migraines, is not an antipsychotic, and is not used in a weight-loss program.
A 30-year-old gravida 1 para 0 experienced a miscarriage at 10 weeks' gestation.
She is Rh negative. In light of this information, the nurse expects:
1 A prescription for one intramuscular microdose (50 mcg) of RhoGAM 2 A prescription for one intramuscular standard dose (300 mcg) of RhoGAM 3 A prescription for one subcutaneous standard dose (300 mcg) of RhoGAM 4 That RhoGAM will not be administered because the pregnancy ended in the first trimester and it is therefore not warranted - ANSWER-1 To prevent production of anti-Rh (D) antibodies in a Rh-negative woman who has been exposed to Rh-positive blood, a microdose of RhoGAM must be administered intramuscularly because the pregnancy ended in the first trimester. Had the 2 / 4
pg. 3 pregnancy ended at 13 weeks of gestation or later, a standard dose of RhoGAM would be administered intramuscularly. RhoGAM is not administered subcutaneously.
A 20-year-old woman is admitted to the labor and delivery unit after reporting that she is experiencing severe contractions. She is 38 weeks +2 days' gestation.External fetal monitoring is started. During the assessment the nurse notes that the woman is sweating profusely sweating, has dilated pupils and irregular respirations, is hypertensive, and continues to complain of very severe pain with contractions. The external fetal monitor shows fetal tachycardia with excessive fetal activity. What should the nurse suspect?1 Heroin abuse 2 Marijuana use 3 Cocaine abuse 4 alcohol withdrawal - ANSWER-3 These signs are seen in pregnant women who abuse cocaine. Yawning, diaphoresis, rhinorrhea, restlessness, and excessive tearing are seen in heroin abuse. Chronic redness in the eyes, drowsiness, forgetfulness, and an unusual odor on the clothing or breath are signs of marijuana use. Anxiety, nervousness, shakiness, and slow speech are seen with alcohol withdrawal. The possibility of seizure activity must also be considered.
The nurse is admitting a client to the unit after fetal death was confirmed by ultrasound. While initiating intravenous therapy the nurse notes blood continually oozing from the puncture site. What is the nurse's next action?1 Restarting the line distal to the initial site
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pg. 4 Informing the health care provider of this finding 3 Starting the ordered infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) 4 Placing an oxygen mask on the client and setting the flow rate at 8 L/min -
ANSWER-2
Oozing from a venipuncture site is a sign that disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is developing. This pathologic form of clotting causes widespread bleeding and clotting. It is never a primary diagnosis; it always results from some problem that has triggered the clotting cascade. The health care provider must be informed because this diagnosis may change the client's plan of care. There is no information indicating the need for a different IV site. Also, subsequent venipunctures must be proximal and not distal to previous sites.Delivery will likely be managed initially with Pitocin; however, this is not the first action to be taken in regard to an oozing IV site. Generally oxygen is started for signs of hypoxia, fetal or maternal; because there is no fetal indication for oxygen and no information in the stem indicating maternal hypoxia, application of oxygen is not the next intervention.
The nurse is providing care to a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr. The nurse receives a call from the laboratory technician indicating that the client has a magnesium level of 6.4 mEq/L. What is the next nursing action?1 Stopping the infusion 2 Assessing the client's deep tendon reflexes 3 Assessing the client's level of consciousness 4 Documenting the level in the client's electronic medical record - ANSWER-4
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