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AANP Actual Exam, Practice Exam And Study Guide Newest 2025/2026 With Complete Questions And Correct Answers |Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!
AANP Actual Exam A parent brings in their 6-year-old son with concerns about a pertussis exposure in the child's classroom. If the patient is not up to date on vaccinations, which vaccine should the nurse practitioner administer at today's visit?
A.DTaP
B.Td
C.Tdap
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D.Vaccination is not necessary since he has already been exposed - ANSWER- A. DTaP
The patient should receive the DTaP (A) vaccination at today's visit.Five doses of pertussis-containing vaccine are recommended before a child enters school. While the DTaP vaccination is not guaranteed to prevent pertussis, it should help lessen the severity of symptoms.Postexposure prophylaxis of azithromycin is recommended in children who are in close contact with an infected person or at high risk for severe pertussis.
The nurse practitioner is suspicious of possible papilledema after obtaining a thorough history from a patient. Which statement made by the patient raises the index of suspicion for this pathology?
A."I was sitting at my desk this afternoon and suddenly developed eye pain"
B."My vision has been getting worse over the last few months but has improved with new glasses"
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C."My vision suddenly became blurry, and I saw flashing lights and floaters"
D.
"While getting ready for work this morning, I began to experience flickering vision that lasted only a few seconds" - ANSWER- D."While getting ready for work this morning, I began to experience flickering vision that lasted only a few seconds"
Papilledema is described as a sudden onset of vision changes, including blurred or double vision, flickering, and loss of vision lasting seconds at a time (D). Upon examination of the eye, the nurse practitioner may see that the margins of the disk are blurred, and the central cup cannot be visualized due to disk swelling. Headaches are also a common finding.Papilledema should be considered an emergency, as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a dangerously high blood pressure.
A 23-year-old man presents to the office with concerns of yellow/green penile discharge and pain with urination. The patient reports a poor hydration status, multiple new sexual partners over the past year, and
occasional use of condoms. The vital signs are as follows: weight 180
lbs, blood pressure 120/60 mm Hg, pulse 68 bpm, and temperature 3 / 4
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98.4°F orally. A nucleic acid amplification test is positive for gonorrhea and negative for chlamydia. What is the best treatment plan for this patient?
A.Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g intramuscular; retest in 3 months
B.Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 500 mg intramuscular and azithromycin (Zithromax) 1 g oral; no test of cure is indicated
C.Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 500 mg intramuscular and azithromycin (Zithromax) 1 g oral; retest in 3 months
D.Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 500 mg intramuscular; no test of cure is indicated - ANSWER- D.Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 500 mg intramuscular; no test of cure is indicated
The CDC recently updated the treatment guidelines for gonorrhea and chlamydia. For individuals weighing < 150 kg, gonorrhea infections are
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