ABFAS Rearfoot Exam Latest Version Questions and Accurate Answers Using Marking Scheme Guaranteed 100% Score Rate A 12-year-old presents with peroneal spasm and a rigid valgus hindfoot. A diagnosis of a fibrous middle facet coalition is made. Non surgical treatment has failed to alleviate the symptoms. What is the treatment of choice? - Correct Answer: Resection of the coalition
A 21-year-old female presents with pain and swelling to the right ankle. The patient states that last week she jumped from a high fence on to uneven ground, twisted her foot and fell forward. Assuming that the foot was inverted and then forced into dorsiflexion, this type of trauma would suggest what type of frequently missed fracture?
- Correct Answer: Lateral process of talus - Snowboarder's fracture
A 25 year old ballet dancer presents with an 8 month history of ankle pain following an ankle sprain. On physical exam there is joint swelling and radio graphs are unremarkable physical therapy and NSAIDs have not reduced her symptoms. What is
the next appropriate step in management of this patient? - Correct Answer: MRI
A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is severely edematous and ecchymosis. Diagnostic tests reveal rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments. What should the treatment consist of at this time? - Correct
Answer: Compression dressing 24 - 48 hours
A 27-year-old male presents with a deep wound infection three weeks following an open reduction and internal fixation of the pilon fracture. The patient is admitted, the wound is debrided and is placed on IV antibiotics. Following the debridment the hardware is now exposed. What should be done regarding the hardware? - Correct
Answer: Keep in place unless loosening occurs.
A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced plantarflexion injury. Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly
exacerbate the symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis? - Correct Answer:
Fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus.
A 30-year-old male presents with medial ankle and arch pain after a resection of a calcaneonavicular bar at age 11. On physical exam he exhibits a rigid valgus deformity and tenderness to palpation medially and plantarly. Radiographs demonstrate reduced joint space of the subtalar joint and Talar beaking. Recurrence of the calcaneonavicular bar is noted as well. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate? -
Correct Answer: Double arthrodesis
A 41-year-old female has a unilateral flatfoot of six-months duration. The patient relates a history of multiple cortisone injections over the medial foot and ankle. What is the 1 / 2
most likely cause of this patient's condition? - Correct Answer: rupture of the posterior tibial tendon
A 45-year-old male sustains a crushing-type injury to the left foot. Radio graphs are negative for fracture and dislocation. Which of the following tests is the most helpful in determining skin flap viability? - Correct Answer: Fluorescein dye study - SPY Elite system
A 51-year-old sustains a tongue type calcaneal fracture. What negative sequelae would occur with displacement of this fracture in the characteristic fashion? - Correct Answer: posterior skin necrosis Peroneal Artery supplies area via lateral calcaneal branch
A 67-year-old male presents 10 months post TCC arthrodesis. He is having chronic swelling about the attempted fusion site. There is notable lucency about the nail on x- ray but clinically the fusion site appears to have trabeculation. He denies any recent or past con-constitutional symptoms. What would be the next most logical step to assess
the fusion site? - Correct Answer: CT
A non-displaced medial lesion of the talus is best managed by which treatment? -
Correct Answer: Resection through a medial malleolar osteotomy.
A patient complains of chronic pain and a clicking at the lateral aspect of the ankle.What is the most likely diagnosis? - Correct Answer: Subluxation of peroneal tendons
A patient complains of frequent ankle sprains. Clinical exam and advanced imaging
shows no pathology. What is the most appropriate treatment? - Correct Answer:
Proprioception PT
A patient presents eight weeks after sustaining a fracture through the neck of the talus.What finding is a prognostic indicator that the vascular supply is intact? - Correct
Answer: A. resorption of subchondral bone of talar dome = Hawkin's Sign
A patient presents to the office with painful swelling of the lateral ankle. Ultrasound reveals 2 cm of fluid collection within the tendon sheath of the fibularis brevis and a partial retraction of tendon fibers. What is likely to be seen if an MRI of the same ankle
is obtained? - Correct Answer: C shaped tendon
Boomerang tendon
A patient presents with an inversion ankle sprain. Stress inversion radio graphs reveal a 15 degree difference between the symptomatic and asymptomatic ankle. A peroneal tenogram reveals contrast media within the ankle joint and extravasation anterior, lateral, and distal to the lateral malleolus. These findings are consistent with rupture of the: - Correct Answer: ATFL CFL
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