ABIM IM BOARDS ITE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT

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ABIM IM BOARDS ITE EXAM QUESTIONS

WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

Question 1: Which tests should be ordered 3 months after starting PrEP

treatment?

• HIV and Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
• HIV and Creatinine (Cr)
• Syphilis and Complete Blood Count (CBC)
• CD4 count and Viral Load

Correct Answer: B) HIV and Creatinine (Cr)

Question 2: What are the indications to stop TB treatment?

• Resolution of symptoms
• >2 weeks of adequate treatment
• 3 consecutive negative tests
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above (Resolution of symptoms, >2 weeks of

adequate tx, 3 consecutive negative tests)

Question 3: Which test is recommended for influenza?

• Rapid influenza NAAT
• Viral blood culture
• Chest X-ray
• Sputum gram stain

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Correct Answer: A) Rapid influenza NAAT

Question 4: What are the indications for a permanent pacemaker?

• Acquired AV block (2nd degree or 3rd degree AV block) and bundle branch

block

• Cardiomyopathy (dilated, hypertrophic) and heart failure
• Hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome, SA node dysfunction, and

tachydysrhythmias

• All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Question 5: When should routine screening for HIV be performed?

• Annually for everyone over 18
• Once for individuals aged 15-65
• Only for pregnant women
• Once for individuals aged 50-75

Correct Answer: B) Once for individuals aged 15-65

Question 6: What should you test for before starting a patient on therapy for

dermatitis herpetiformis?

• TSH levels

B) HLA-B27

• G6PD deficiency (because the treatment is dapsone)
• Liver Function Tests

Correct Answer: C) G6PD deficiency (because the treatment is dapsone)

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Question 7: What is the osmotic stool gap formula? (Note: The answer was blank in the provided text, so the standard medical formula has been provided).

• 290 - 2 * (Stool Na + Stool K)
• Stool Na + Stool K
• 290 - (Stool Na - Stool K)
• 2 * Stool Osmolality

Correct Answer: A) 290 - 2 * (Stool Na + Stool K)

Question 8: Which of the following are etiologies of hypophosphatemia?

• Refeeding syndrome and Vitamin D deficiency
• Acute alcohol intoxication and insulin administration
• Hyperparathyroidism
• Both A and B

Correct Answer: D) Both A and B (Refeeding syndrome, Vitamin D deficiency,

acute alcohol intoxication, insulin administration)

Question 9: MESNA is used for the management of which adverse effect?

• Cardiotoxicity from doxorubicin
• Hemorrhagic cystitis in cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide use (by

decreasing toxic metabolite acrolein)

• Nephrotoxicity from cisplatin
• Pulmonary fibrosis from bleomycin

Correct Answer: B) Hemorrhagic cystitis in cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide

use (by decreasing toxic metabolite acrolein)

Question 10: What does a fractional excretion of P > 5% + proximal renal

tubular dysfunction in patients on ifosfamide indicate?

• Acute interstitial nephritis

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• Ifosfamide-induced Fanconi syndrome
• Minimal change disease
• Renal vein thrombosis

Correct Answer: B) Ifosfamide-induced Fanconi syndrome

Question 11: What is Baloxavir's mechanism of action, indication, and timing of

administration?

• Neuraminidase inhibitor given daily for 5 days for severe flu
• Endonuclease inhibitor given as single-dose therapy in uncomplicated

influenza; start within 48 hours of symptom onset

• M2 channel blocker given for influenza A prophylaxis
• Viral uncoating inhibitor given within 72 hours

Correct Answer: B) Endonuclease inhibitor given as single-dose therapy in

uncomplicated influenza; start within 48 hours of symptom onset

Question 12: All NSTEMI patients get treated with what combination regardless

of reperfusion status?

• Heparin and Warfarin
• Aspirin and Plavix (clopidogrel)
• Alteplase and Aspirin
• Apixaban and Aspirin

Correct Answer: B) Aspirin and Plavix (clopidogrel)

Question 13: Which antiplatelet is preferred in patients without an increased

bleeding risk: ticagrelor or clopidogrel?

• Clopidogrel
• Ticagrelor
• Neither, prasugrel is always preferred