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ABSITE EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025 TEST BANK|
COMPLETE 750 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+| ABSITE EXAM
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What genetic mutation is associated with MEN syndromes?a.) RET b.) APC c.) MSH2 d.) p53 e.) N-myc - Correct Answer - (a) RET-proto-oncogene
What is the treatment of failed chemo/radiation for anal canal cacogenic carcinoma?(a) LAR (b) More chemo/radiation (c) APR (d) Sigmoid colectomy - Correct Answer - (c) In cases followed up with surveillance biopsies, if positive can undergo salvage APR (abdomino-perineal resection)
Most common groin hernia in women? 1 / 4
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pg. 2 a.) Direct inguinal b.) Femoral c.) Indirect inguinal d.) Obturator - Correct Answer - (c) Indirect inguinal hernia is still the most common, even in women
What is the most common visceral arterial aneurysm?a.) SMA b.) Splenic c.) GDA d.) Celiac - Correct Answer - (b) Splenic artery aneurysm, fix when > 2.5cm or symptomatic
Which of the following regarding LCIS is NOT true?a.) Tamoxifen increases the risk of invasive cancer b.) Resection with negative margins is required c.) It is more common in premenopausal women d.) Calcifications are usually absent e.) There is an increased risk for bilateral cancer - Correct Answer - (b)
Which of the following is appropriate treatment option for LCIS?a.) Bilateral simple mastectomies 2 / 4
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pg. 3 b.) Random biopsy of the contralateral side and resection of all areas of LCIS c.) Modified radical mastectomy d.) Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection e.) Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection followed by radiation therapy - Correct Answer - (a) Options include 1) observation 2) tamoxifen 3) bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy; never need ALND
Initial management of T4 invasive lobular breast carcinoma is a.) Tamoxifen b.) Modified radical mastectomy c.) Radiation therapy to the breast and ipsilateral axilla d.) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy - Correct Answer - (d)
All of the following are associated with an increased risk in the development of cancer EXCEPT a.) Atypical ductal hyperplasia b.) BRCA 1 mutation c.) Dense breast tissue d.) Increased bone density e.) Conjugated estrogen therapy after hysterectomy - Correct Answer - (e) 3 / 4
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pg. 4 Study of Women's Health Initiative did NOT show increase risk of breast cancer with estrogen therapy after hysterectomy
A 48yr old woman presents with thick greenish nipple discharge from both breasts. There is no palpable breast lump, although both nipples are slightly retracted. The patient does not take any medication.Mammogram & ultrasound do not show any evidence of cancer. The
most likely diagnosis is:
a.) galactorrhea b.) duct papilloma c.) mammary duct ectasia d.) fibroadenoma e.) lobular carcinoma in situ - Correct Answer - (c)
The cremaster muscle is derived from what structure?a.) External oblique b.) Internal oblique c.) Transversalis d.) Rectus sheath - Correct Answer - (b)
A complication that enteral and parenteral feeding have in common is a.) Increased incidence of sepsis b.) Intestinal villous atrophy c.) Elevated liver transaminases d.) Hyperosmolar Nonketotic coma
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