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ABSITE EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| COMPLETE 550 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+| ABSITE EXAM
REVIEW 2025|| BRAND NEW!!
Of the following, which is the most critical component in the neovascularization of tumor metastases?
- HER receptor
- VEGF receptor
- Neu receptor
- FGF receptor - Correct Answer - (d)
Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) receptor
For its anticoagulation effects, heparin binds:
- Protein C
- Protein S
- Anti-thrombin III
- Factor VII - Correct Answer - (c)
ATIII (heparin-ATIII complex binds thrombin, factor IX, factor X, and factor XI)
- days after a kidney transplant, your patient develops severe acute
rejection with vasculitis on biopsy. You decide to start the monoclonal
antibody OKT3. Monoclonal antibodies: 1 / 4
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- Bind 1 epitope at one site
- Bind 1 epitope at multiple sites
- Bind multiple epitopes on a single antigen
- Bind multiple epitopes on multiple antigens - Correct Answer - (a)
They bind one epitope at the exact same binding site
While performing a LAR for colon cancer in a patient on chronic dialysis, you notice a significant amount of bloody oozing from your dissection plane. All of the following are true of uremic induced platelet
dysfunction except:
- Down regulates GpIb
- Down regulates GpIIb/IIIa
- Stimulates von Willebrand's factor release
- Treatment of choice is dialysis - Correct Answer - (c)
Uremia downregulates GpIb, GpIIb/IIIa, and vWF Dialysis is the initial treatment of choice for uremic coagulopathy. Other therapeutic options include DDAVP and conjugated estrogens (which stimulate the release of factor VIII and vWF).
The most common blood transfusion reaction is:
- Clerical error leading to ABO incompatibility
- Transfusion related ALI
- Delayed hemolysis from reaction to minor antigens
- Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction - Correct Answer - (d)
Occurs from WBCs in the donor blood 2 / 4
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pg. 3 Clerical error leading to ABO incompatibility is the most common transfusion reaction leading to DEATH
Prevention of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction in patients
requiring blood involves:
- Heating blood to destroy the WBCs
- Prophylactic antibiotics
- NSAIDs
- Leukocyte filter - Correct Answer - (d)
A patient on gentamicin has a peak level of 80 and a trough of <1. The
most appropriate management is:
- Continue current dosing
- Decease dose but maintain frequency
- Decrease dose and decrease frequency
- Maintain dose and decrease frequency - Correct Answer - (b)
If peak too high → ↓ amount of each dose If trough too high → ↓ frequency of doses
The mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones is:
- Inhibition of RNA polymerases
- Inhibition of DNA gyrase
- Inhibition of ribosomes
- Production of oxygen radicals - Correct Answer - (b) 3 / 4
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pg. 4 Bacteriocidal
The mechanism of action for metronidazole is:
- Inhibition of RNA polymerases
- Inhibition of DNA gyrase
- Inhibition of ribosomes
- Production of oxygen radicals - Correct Answer - (d)
Metronidazole produces oxygen radicals which break up DNA in bacteria. It is a bacteriocidal agent.
A patient with an enterococcal blood stream infection is best treated by
which of the following antibiotics:
- Cefazolin
- Ceftriaxone
- Bactrim
- Ampicillin - Correct Answer - (d)
Ampicillin (± gentamicin) was specifically designed to treat enterococcus, although this will not pick up VRE.Vancomycin Timentin/Zosyn
Sludging in the gallbladder and cholestatic jaundice is characteristic of
which of the following antibiotics:
- Quinolones
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