ANCC PMHNP EXAM REVIEW NEWEST 2025 TEST

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ANCC – PMHNP EXAM REVIEW NEWEST 2025 TEST

BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM QUE STIONS AND

CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED

ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+| ANCC PMHNP

EXAM PREP|| BRAND NEW!!

An Hispanic patient informs an adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner during a wellness visit that he or she occasionally uses hot chili juice to relieve a "nervous condition." The patient denies any complaints related to this practice. The nurse practitioner's response is

to:

• actively discourage the patient from continuing this treatment.
• offer a medication to treat the nervous condition.
• suggest an alternative food to relieve the nervous condition.
• view this as a self-care ritual that needs to be preserved. - Correct

Answer - D. view this as a self-care ritual that needs to be preserved.

Before an older adult patient initiates pharmacotherapy with a medication that is cleared by the kidneys, an adult psychiatric and

mental health nurse practitioner assesses the patient's:

• blood urea nitrogen level.
• creatinine clearance.
• specific gravity.
• urinary sediment. - Correct Answer - B. creatinine clearance.
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pg. 2 A male patient informs an adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner that he has not slept in three days, has poor concentration,

and denies fatigue. The patient's diagnosis is:

• attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
• bipolar disorder.
• panic disorder.
• primary insomnia. - Correct Answer - B. bipolar disorder.

During patient education about sertraline (Zoloft), an adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner focuses upon the potential side

effect of:

• agranulocytosis.
• hypernatremia.
• sexual dysfunction.
• weight loss. - Correct Answer - C. sexual dysfunction

A mother telephones an adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner to report that her 13-year-old son has been unusually active, irritable, and unable to sleep for more than a few hours each night. The adolescent has been diagnosed with a major depressive disorder and has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for six weeks. The nurse practitioner is

most concerned about the possibility that:

• a therapeutic level of the drug has not been reached.
• an addition of hypnotic medication is warranted.
• the adolescent has been misdiagnosed. 2 / 4

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• the adolescent is experiencing side effects. - Correct Answer - C. the

adolescent has been misdiagnosed.

The neurochemical pathophysiology of Tourette disorder involves:

• decreased levels of gamma-aminobutyric acid and increased levels of

glutamate in the brain.

• deficits in the prefrontal cortex-mediated executive functions of the

brain.

• imbalances in dopaminergic, serotonergic, and noradrenergic systems

in multiple regions of the brain.

• overstimulation of noradrenergic activity located in the locus

coeruleus of the brain. - Correct Answer - C. imbalances in dopaminergic, serotonergic, and noradrenergic systems in multiple regions of the brain.

Before implementing evidence-based practice changes, an adult

psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner's initial action is to:

• brainstorm with stakeholders and draft a detailed problem list.
• compare data with internal and external benchmarks, and coordinate

ongoing education.

• facilitate a collaborative multidisciplinary group to synthesize

evidence and compare key themes.

• identify potential barriers and facilitators that reflect patients' values

and expectations. - Correct Answer - D. identify potential barriers and facilitators that reflect patients' values and expectations.

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pg. 4 Symptoms of anxiety and panic are associated with a low level of which neurotransmitter?

• Cortisol
• Dopamine
• Gamma-aminobutyric acid
• Glutamate - Correct Answer - C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid

An outpatient mental health clinic-based adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner treats a 32-year-old patient who has diabetes and a major depressive disorder. The patient reports an improved and stable mood on a trial of duloxetine (Cymbalta), but experiences continued neuropathic pain. The nurse practitioner's initial intervention

is to:

• add gabapentin (Neurontin) to the treatment regimen.
• conduct additional diagnostic tests.
• contact the patient's endocrinologist.
• increase the dosage of duloxetine (Cymbalta). - Correct Answer - D.

increase the dosage of duloxetine (Cymbalta).

According to current clinical guidelines for treating a patient with bipolar I disorder mania with psychotic features, an adult psychiatric and

mental health nurse practitioner prescribes:

• alprazolam (Xanax).
• citalopram (Celexa).
• lamotrigine (Lamictal).
• quetiapine (Seroquel). - Correct Answer - D. quetiapine (Seroquel).
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