pg. 1
CEA EXAM PREP NEWEST 2024 -2025 TESTBANK
COMPLETE 350 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED A+
An older adult patient with new onset GERD, cough, heartburn. Initial tx - Correct Answer - Antacid and lifestyle modification/weight loss
Rationale:
Before initiating a PPI or H2RA, it would always be wise to initiate diet/exercise and symptom management when present with an antacid. Loss of weight/dieting is most likely to deal with obesity as the most common underlying cause of GERD.
A 59-year-old male presents with symptoms of abdominal pain, jaundice, and weight loss which he has not been trying to lose weight. What would be a malignancy associated with these symptoms? - Correct Answer - Pancreatic cancer
Rationale:
Pancreatic cancer, the most typically presentation includes abdominal pain, jaundice, and weight loss. Although weight loss and abdominal pain may be present with adenocarcinoma it is unlikely to present with jaundice, and you're unlikely to have abdominal pain or jaundice with any esophageal malignancy.
A 39-year-old female is being seen by your service for diarrhea. Patient reports 3-4 loose stools a day. She also reports mild cramping. Which labs would be helpful in further workup of a diagnosis? - Correct Answer - ESR, fecal occult, Stool culture
Rationale:
ESR, Fecal occult, and stool culture would be the biggest benefit to determine the potential cause of her symptoms.
An adult female presents with a 1-week history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain.T=101.2 degrees F. (38.4 degrees C) and an elevated WBC count. This is the patient's first episode of severe abdominal pain. The nurse practitioner suspects diverticulitis. 1 / 4
pg. 2 Which of the following diagnostic tests would confirm the diagnosis? - Correct Answer - CT scan of the abdomen
Rationale:
For patients with acute diverticulitis, CT of the abdomen will provide evidence of the pathophysiology. Evidence of diverticula will be present on a flat plate KUB x-ray, but there is not enough specificity to show that it is inflamed as with a CT scan.
A 70-year-old patient presents to the clinic with dyspnea, palpitations, and fatigue. The patient reports a 2-week history of blackened stools, which the patient attributes to drinking berry juice. Assessment reveals vital signs of BP = 110/60, P = 100, R = 24; Hgb = 4.5 g/dL; Hct = 16%. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention? - Correct Answer - Send to the emergency room.
Rationale:
This patient is experiencing a GI bleed and is in need of emergency treatment due to their considerably low hemoglobin.
An older adult has a follow-up fasting lipid panel 6 months after making therapeutic lifestyle changes. LDL=205mg/dL (Normal=<100mg/dL), HDL=44mg/dL, and triglycerides=180mg/dL (Normal-<150mg/dL). The patient is placed on statin therapy.Two months later, the patient presents for follow-up and complains of body aches. In addition to creatine phosphokinase (CPK), which of the following tests should the nurse practitioner order? - Correct Answer - Liver transaminase (AST and ALT) levels
Rationale:
Due to the potential liver function test elevation found with statin use, LFTs of AST/ALT should be checked routinely after initiation of therapy
A 56-year-old male on your service has been diagnosed with colon cancer which is localized. What is the primary management that you should expect to prepare your patient for? - Correct Answer - Surgery
Rationale:
Surgery is the only curative modality for localized colon cancers. Patients with progressive/metastatic disease may require chemotherapy/radiation.
- / 4
pg. 3 A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She also reports occasional bloody stools. Colonoscopy reveals continuous inflammation from the rectum extending proximally. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Correct Answer - Ulcerative colitis
Rationale:
The presence of inflammatory bowel disease which is present in the patient with bloody stool suggests ulcerative colitis. This patient should be acutely managed with steroids and chronically with auto-immune therapy such as biologics and/or DMARDs.
A patient diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia requires iron supplementation. Which of the following treatments would likely be ineffective? - Correct Answer - Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO BID for a 43 y.o. F s/p gastric bypass 2 years ago
Rationale:
Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery have a permanent loss and/or alteration of gastric space and subsequent decrease in the production of HCL and/or enterocytes.This loss decreases the conversion/absorption of ferric iron (present in food) into the usable ferrous form. Any PO administration of either ferrous or ferric iron is less likely to be absorbed in adequate amounts after gastric bypass or other gastric procedures.
Which is best performed to assess the risk for fall in an 88-year old adult? - Correct Answer - Get up and go test
Rationale:
This question is asking you if you understand the different screening to available for Mobility and fall risk. The global screening assessment, PHQ-2 questionnaire, and clock drawing test have no clinical significance to mobility. The "get up and go" test is the only option that is a mobility test of these four.
Patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome should be managed by which of the following mechanisms? - Correct Answer - Similarly to burn patients due to loss of fluid volume
Rationale:
Due to the loss of the protective skin barrier where sloughing occurs, infection risk is high and substantial insensible fluid loss means these patients need to be treated as burn victims would be. Hypervolemia is not a typical concern for the same reason, as they tend to be underfilled. Off floor privileges would not be wise since the infection risk and pain requires close monitoring, fall risk, and analgesic requirements. 3 / 4
pg. 4 A patient who has active herpes zoster is at risk of shedding which contagious virus? - Correct Answer - Varicella zoster
Rationale:
Patients with herpes zoster (shingles) are at risk of transmitting varicella zoster (chicken pox) to those who have not yet had varicella or been vaccinated.
Your patient presented yesterday to urgent care with symptoms of lower extremity weakness and then went home for observation with family. They have returned to urgent care and it now appears to be affecting the patient's abdomen in just the past few hours.What is your priority intervention? - Correct Answer - Immediate transportation to the hospital and monitor for airway involvement (This patient appears to have ascending GB and is at risk of airway compromise based on the rapid succession of symptoms towards the airway.)
Rationale:
With Guillain-Barre syndrome as the leading diagnosis, there are two types (ascending and descending). Ascending, which is being described in this scenario, will require hospitalization as it is next likely to affect the thorax/lungs and may require airway management with an advanced airway to support if the patient's muscle loses neurologic control due to demyelination.
Your patient has been noticing bilateral joint pain in the knees and feet for about 6 months and has been started on methotrexate. Which of the following diagnoses correlate to this treatment plan? - Correct Answer - Rheumatoid arthritis
Rationale:
This is a classic diagnosis and treatment of RA. OA is the same as DJD, and PMR is typically located in the upper chest and shoulder girdle.
A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Treatment includes prednisone with physical therapy. The nurse practitioner advises the patient to begin disease-modifying
therapy: - Correct Answer - as soon as possible.
Rationale:
To limit disease progression, disease modifying therapy (DMARDs) should be initiated as soon as possible. This is also to limit the exposure and duration of steroid therapy as this does not treat the underlying cause and it may take some time for DMARD therapy to become fully therapeutic for the patient.
- / 4