CHT EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE EXAM NEWEST 2025

EXAM ELABORATIONS Aug 28, 2025
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CHT EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE EXAM NEWEST 2025

TEST BANK| COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

DETAILED ANSWERS (VE RIFIED ANSWERS)

ALREADY GRADED A+| CERTIFIED HEMODIALYSIS

TECHNICIAN TEST BANK|| BRAND NEW!!

A PCR-RFLP assay is performed on DNA amplified from exon 2 of the HLA-DRB1 gene. The restriction enzyme chosen recognizes a single site contained in DRB1*0701 but in no other DRB1 allele. In a patient with the HLA type DRB1*0101/DRB1*0701 how many bands would be expected to appear in the RFLP gel analysis?

  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Four - ANSWER - c. Three

Linkage disequilibrium between HLA loci is correlated with...

  • Physical distance between loci on chromosome 6
  • Order of discovery of the loci
  • ABO
  • Sex - ANSWER - a. Physical distance between loci on chromosome 6

HLA typing has value in parentage testing because

  • HLA loci are few in number
  • HLA alleles are few in number 1 / 4
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  • The polymorphism of HLA alleles is high
  • HLA alleles do not exhibit classical Mendelian segregation -
  • ANSWER - c. The polymorphism of HLA alleles is high

Which change would increase Relative Risk for disease Y with HLA allele X?

  • Fewer patients with the disease Y observed in the sampled population
  • Fewer total individuals with HLA type X in the sampled population
  • Fewer controls with HLA type X in the sampled population
  • Fewer patients with disease Y but without HLA type X in the sampled
  • population - ANSWER - c. Fewer controls with HLA type X in the sampled population

Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs directly blocks IL-2 production?

  • OKT3
  • Cyclosporin
  • Azathioprine
  • Sirolimus - ANSWER - b. Cyclosporin

Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs directly eliminates T cells?

  • OKT3
  • Cyclosporin
  • Azathioprine 2 / 4
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  • Sirolimus - ANSWER - a. OKT3

Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs blocks the autocrine signal delivered through the IL-2/CD25 interaction?

  • OKT3
  • OKT3
  • Azathioprine
  • Sirolimus - ANSWER - d. Sirolimus

Channel shift in a flow cytometry crossmatch is determined by examining which histogram?

  • FSC versus SSC
  • FITC versus cell number
  • CD20 versus CD3
  • CD20 versus CD4 - ANSWER - b. FITC versus cell number

Patient serum X gave a 10-channel shift versus NHS in a flow cytometry crossmatch. How should this crossmatch be interpreted?

  • Positive crossmatch
  • Negative crossmatch
  • Ambiguous crossmatch
  • Depends upon the HLA lab and their SOP - ANSWER - d. Depends
  • upon the HLA lab and their SOP

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pg. 4 In a reverse SSO assay the genomic DNA is often incubated with sodium hydroxide before application to the membrane. Why?

  • To clips the ends from the genomic DNA
  • To remove homopolymer sequences
  • To denature the DNA
  • To remove non-standard bases - ANSWER - c. To denature the DNA

When pipetting the components of a PCR mix according to a recipe, which parameter is most important variable in achieving a successful PCR amplification?

  • Pipetter Precision
  • Pipetter Accuracy
  • Pipetter Reproducibility
  • Pipetter Resolution

e. Pipetter Display: Digital versus Analog - ANSWER - b. Pipetter

Accuracy

If 100g of NaCl (Na=22.99 g/Mole, Cl=35.43 g/Mole) are dissolved in 1500ml of water what is the molarity of the resulting solution?

  • 0.23M
  • 0.58M
  • 0.75M
  • 1.14M - ANSWER - d. 1.14M
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Category: EXAM ELABORATIONS
Added: Aug 28, 2025
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pg. 1 CHT EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE EXAM NEWEST 2025 TEST BANK| COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VE RIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+| CERTIFIED HEMODIALYSIS TECHNICIAN TEST BANK|| BRAND...

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