pg. 1 EOR Women’s Health Test 2025 Prep Test Bank 2 With 350 Questions and Correct Detailed Answers (100% Accurate Answers) | 2025 Women’s Health EOR Exam Prep Test Bank 1 With 200 Real Exam Questions and Correct Answers (BRAND NEW)
A 19-year-old woman presents to the clinic with heavy and painful periods for the past year. Her cycles are irregular lasting up to three to four weeks at a time. The patient is not on any medications, is sexually active, and a pregnancy test in the office is negative. She has a normal body mass index and Pap smear, and the pelvic ultrasound and pelvic examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this condition?
- Combined oral contraceptive pills
- Desmopressin
- Endometrial ablation
- High dose intravenous estrogen
- Combined oral contraceptive pills
- Computed tomography
- Magnetic resonance imaging
- Plain film radiography
- Sonography
- Sonography
An 18-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her annual preventive health examination. She is asymptomatic. There is a new palpable left-sided adnexal mass on pelvic exam. Which of the following imaging modalities is best to initially characterize the mass?
A 45-year-old woman presents for her annual physical exam and is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that she has been having heavy and irregular periods for the past year. She has three children and does not plan to have any more. Pelvic examination is normal. You order a 1 / 4
pg. 2 pelvic ultrasound. Which of the following findings is not consistent with the diagnosis of abnormal uterine bleeding?
- Endometrial hyperplasia
- Endometrial lining thickness of four mm
- Presence of endometrial polyps
- Presence of uterine fibroids
- Endometrial lining thickness of four mm
- Diabetes mellitus type 2
- Gestational diabetes
- Polycystic ovary syndrome
- Pregestational diabetes
- Gestational diabetes
- Endometrial biopsy
- Papanicolaou smear
- Transabdominal ultrasound
- Transvaginal ultrasound
- Endometrial biopsy 2 / 4
A 33-year-old G3P2 at 26 weeks’ gestation presents to the clinic for a regular prenatal visit. She has no complaints at presentation and notes normal fetal movement. Vitals are normal. Body mass index is 35.6 kg/m². A 50 gram oral glucose load is given and one hour later, her glucose level is elevated at 212 mg/dL. The patient has no prior history of elevated glucose readings. Which of the following is the most likely presumptive diagnosis?
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presents to the clinic complaining of frequent episodes of vaginal spotting, which she began noticing over the past month. She has a history of diabetes and hypertension. She denies any history of abnormal Papanicolaou smears. A pelvic examination reveals a small amount of blood coming from the external os, but is otherwise normal. What is the best way to diagnose this condition?
pg. 3 *GOLD standard for endometrial cancer* A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with lower abdominal cramping that started six months ago. The cramping always starts a day or two before her menstrual cycle and resolves after about two days. She rates the pain as “severe”; she has gone home from school and missed sports practices due to the pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy?
- Acetaminophen
- Ibuprofen
- Norgestimate/ethinyl estradiol
- Tramadol
- Ibuprofen
- Cervical dilation of 4 cm
- Intact membranes
- Mucus plug discharge
- Sporadic painful uterine contractions
- Cervical dilation of 4 cm
- Colposcopy
- Cone biopsy
- Endocervical curettage
- Repeat cervical cytology in one year
- Repeat cervical cytology in one year 3 / 4
A 25-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks’ gestation presents to the hospital as she believes she is in labor. Which of the following would suggest that the woman should be admitted to the labor and delivery unit?
A 21-year-old non-pregnant woman presents for her first Papanicolaou screening test. Cervical cytology shows low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions and negative for HPV. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
pg. 4 An obese, 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a new and persistent non- tender mass in her right breast, which she had noticed a month ago. Past medical history is significant for menarche at age 16 years, first pregnancy at age 17 years, and breastfeeding all of her children. On exam, there is one firm, immovable mass in the right breast as well as right axillary adenopathy. Diagnostic mammogram reveals a spiculated soft-tissue mass. Which of the following risk factors likely increased this woman’s risk for the most likely diagnosis?
- Becoming pregnant earlier in life
- Breastfeeding her children
- Late age at menarche
- Obesity
- Obesity
- Discharge adherent to the vaginal wall
- Loss of vaginal rugae
- Punctate hemorrhages on the cervix
- Vesicovaginal fistula
- Punctate hemorrhages on the cervix
- Active phase
- Latent phase
- / 4
Risk factors for breast cancer: increasing age, female gender, obesity, tall stature (>69 in), increased estrogen levels, early age of menarche, nulliparity, pregnancy later in life, alcohol consumption, and hx of invasive breast cancer A 19-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of ongoing vaginal irritation and discharge. She reports that the discharge has been thin, yellow, and foul smelling. She is currently sexually active with one partner. Vaginal pH is 5.5.Amine test is positive. Wet mount reveals motile trichomonads with absence of hyphae and clue cells. Based on the most likely diagnosis, what other physical examination finding would you likely discover in the patient?
During which period of labor progression does a pregnant woman deliver her fetus?