NBCE Boards Part II - Chiropractic Practices Exam Latest Update 2025-2026 100 Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+
A 47 year old man presents with low back pain and right buttock pain. His weight- bearing ferguson angle is 54 degrees. Kemp's upon right lateral bending and extension is positive. Goldthwait test is negative. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
- posteromedial disc on the left
- posteromedial disc on the right
- posterolateral disc on the left
d. lumbar facet syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER: d. lumbar facet syndrome
A chronic scalene muscle spasm may be found with:
- decreased cervical lordosis
- increased cervical lordosis
- upper cervical subluxation
d. thoracic subluxation - CORRECT ANSWER: a. decreased cervical lordosis
A flexion type injury following a pushing movement is most likely the result in which type of sacroiliac dysfunction?
- anterior subluxation sprain
- posterior subluxation sprain
- anterior subluxation 1 / 3
d. posterior subluxation - CORRECT ANSWER: b. posterior subluxation sprain
A measurement differing by more than 3 mm from anterior to posterior using Van
Akkerveeken's lines suggests:
- instability
- scoliosis
- extension malposition
d. stenosis - CORRECT ANSWER: a. instability
A patient assessed as having a right positive Derefield (R+D) would have the equivalent
static and dynamic sacroiliac listings of a right:
- posterior-inferior ilium or flexion restriction
- posterior-inferior ilium or extension restriction
- anterior-superior ilium or flexion restriction
- anterior-superior ilium or extension restriction - CORRECT ANSWER: b. posterior-
inferior ilium or extension restriction
A patient presents with inability to laterally flex the lumbar spine to the right or rotate to the left. This restriction may represent a malposition of L5 on sacrum. There is a right convexity of the lumbar spine above L5. The preferred segmental contact point is:
- right spinous process
- right mammillary process
- left spinous process
d. left mammillary process - CORRECT ANSWER: b. right mammillary process
- / 3
A patient with a right anterior talus subluxation and a right interosseous sacroiliac ligament sprain will show what posture on plumb line analysis?
- antalgia
- high right shoulder
- left head tilt
d. left pelvic translation - CORRECT ANSWER: d. left pelvic translation
A patient with lumbar pain on extension, a positive McNab's line, and facet arthrosis
probably suggests:
- spinal stenosis
- vertical sacroiliac slippage
- facet syndrome
d. Otto's pelvis - CORRECT ANSWER: c. facet syndrome
A patient with some acetabular degeneration suffers a pelvic trauma by falling on the buttocks during ice-skating. The sacrum is pushed into a frontal plane distortion. Which of these muscles may test weak?
- psoas major
- piriformis
- sartorius
d. quadratus lumborum - CORRECT ANSWER: b. piriformis
Accessory joint motions can best be described as:
- involuntary movements necessary for normal joint function
- / 3