FNP Study PSI 2 Latest Update 2024-2025 Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Graded A+
A 12-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth, development, and: - CORRECT ANSWER: hemoglobin levels.
A 13-year-old is concerned because she has not yet begun to menstruate. Physical examination indicates that the patient is at Tanner stage IV and is of average height and weight. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to this patient? - CORRECT ANSWER: "Your development is exactly as expected for your age; you'll probably begin to have periods within a year."
A 16-year-old female adolescent is brought to the nurse practitioner's office by her mother, who is concerned about her daughter's recent weight loss. History reveals that the daughter was consistently in the 50th percentile for weight, but is now in the 10th percentile. The mother states that she is concerned that her daughter is purging herself after meals since she often goes to the restroom after eating and remains there for a long period of time. The daughter denies any self-induced vomiting, starvation or excessive activity. She does state that she jogs five miles a day and is in good condition. In addition to a complete blood count with differential, which of the following
laboratory tests will be most helpful for further assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER:
Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine, urinalysis
A 17-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with an NSAID and omeprazole (Prilosec). The patient complains of headache, abdominal pain, and gas.These symptoms are most likely: - CORRECT ANSWER: associated with the omeprazole.
A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3 years plans to discontinue the pill at the end of her current cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily
supplements would receive the highest priority? - CORRECT ANSWER: Folic acid
A 2-year-old male presents for reevaluation. Two days ago, he had four episodes of vomiting and six diarrheal stools. On physical examination today, his vital signs reveal P = 120 and capillary refill of 3 seconds. The patient's eyes are sunken and his extremities
are mottled and cool to the touch. The treatment plan would include: - CORRECT
ANSWER: hospitalization for IV fluid replacement.
A 26-year-old female presents with abdominal distention, bloating, and intermittent crampy abdominal pain relieved by defecation. She has four to six loose stools a day when stressed. Between bouts of diarrhea, she often has constipation. Physical 1 / 2
examination results are normal. The CBC was normal. The most likely diagnosis is: -
CORRECT ANSWER: irritable bowel syndrome.
A 27-year-old male patient, who works as a janitor, presents with a 6-month history of an intermittent rash on his hands. History reveals itching and occasional burning.Examination reveals irregularly-distributed scaly maculopapular erythematous patches extending from the dorsum of the hand several inches up the forearms, and dry palms with no nail involvement. The most likely diagnosis is: - CORRECT ANSWER: contact dermatitis.
A 28-year-old patient presents with profuse yellow vaginal discharge, odor, and local irritation. She reports completing a 7-day course of oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d. 4 weeks ago. She has had multiple recurrences over the last 18 months.Microscopic examination reveals presence of clue cells. What is the most appropriate treatment intervention? - CORRECT ANSWER: Treat both patient and partner(s) with oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d., for 7 days
A 3-year-old female has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. She attends preschool daily at a local church day care program. The day before her diagnosis, she ate lunch with her mother at a local restaurant. For which contact(s) would
chemoprophylaxis with rifampin be recommended? - CORRECT ANSWER: Preschool
contacts in the past 7 days
A 3-year-old presents with a 2-day history of acute diarrhea with a total of 8 watery stools without blood or mucus, and 2 episodes of vomiting in the past 48 hours.Assessment reveals no current antibiotic therapy, dehydration <5%, soft abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds, no masses or organomegaly; other physical findings are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan? - CORRECT
ANSWER: No laboratory workup; instruct parents on signs and symptoms of
dehydration; diet of clear liquids, advancing to bananas, rice cereal, Jell-O, and soup.
A 46-year-old female found a lump in her breast this morning. History includes: no prior breast disease; G2P2 (first birth, age 22); maternal aunt diagnosed with breast cancer at age 72; last menstrual period was 2.5 weeks ago. On examination, a nurse practitioner palpates a 2-cm round, soft, mobile, tender lesion in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Mammogram is negative. Which of the following actions is
most appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER: Schedule a right-breast ultrasound
A 46-year-old female presents with a complaint of amenorrhea for 3 months. The first- line diagnostic workup is: - CORRECT ANSWER: urine pregnancy test.
A 65-year-old patient being treated with digoxin (Lanoxin) for chronic heart failure (HF) presents with complaints of palpitations. Three days ago, the patient was placed on clarithromycin (Biaxin) by another provider for community-acquired pneumonia. The appropriate course of action at this point would be to: - CORRECT ANSWER: obtain a digoxin level and change the antibiotic to azithromycin (Zithromax).
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