HESI Critical Care Exam Questions with 100 Verified

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HESI Critical Care Exam Questions with 100% Verified Correct Answers A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

  • The nurse who is caring for another client receiving intracavitary radiation.
  • A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.
  • A nurse with oncology experience who may be pregnant.
  • The nurse who is caring for another client who has Clostridium difficile. - Correct Answers B. A
  • nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.

RATIONALE:

A client receiving intracavity radiation poses a radiation hazard as long as the intracavity radiation source is in place. A nurse's ability to care of this client is not affected by Marfan's syndrome (B), which is a hereditary disorder of connective tissues, bones, muscles, ligaments and skeletal structures. The goal is to limit any one staff member's exposure to the calculated time span based on the half-life of radium, such as the number of minutes at the bedside per day, so (A) should not be assigned. (C) should not be exposed to the radiation due to the possible effect on the fetus. A radiation exposure decreases the immune response in the client who should not be exposed to the potential inadvertent transmission of an infectious organism (D).

1.A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

  • Fit the client with a respirator mask.
  • Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.
  • Don a clean gown for client care.
  • Place an isolation cart in the hallway - Correct Answers Assign the client to a negative air-flow
  • room

RATIONALE:

Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the 1 / 4

isolation environment.

2.A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next?

  • Measure the blood pressure.
  • Reassess the apical pulse.
  • Notify the healthcare provider.
  • Administer the medication. - Correct Answers Administer the medication

RATIONALE:

Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart rate, so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60.(A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.

3.The nurse is assessing a client and identifies a bruit over the thyroid. This finding is consistent with which interpretation?

  • Hypothyroidism.
  • Thyroid cyst.
  • Thyroid cancer.
  • Hyperthyroidism - Correct Answers Hyperthyroidism
  • Rationale:Hyperthyroidism (D) is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often referred to as a goiter, and a bruit may be auscultated over the goiter due to an increase in glandular vascularity which increases as the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive. A bruit is not common with (A, B, and C).A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?

  • Hematemesis and abdominal distention.
  • Asymmetry of the face and eye movements. 2 / 4
  • Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.
  • Abnormal position and movement of the arm. - Correct Answers Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with
  • Halo sign.

RATIONALE:

Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

  • Grave's disease.
  • Multiple sclerosis.
  • Addison's disease.
  • Cushing syndrome. - Correct Answers Grave's disease

RATIONALE:

This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease (A), which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D) are not associated with these symptoms.The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?

  • A nystagmus on the left.
  • Exophthalmos on the right.
  • Ptosis on the left eyelid.
  • Astigmatism on the right. - Correct Answers Ptosis on the left eyelid
  • Rationale: Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris (A), which may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder. (B) is characterized by rapid, 3 / 4

rhythmic movement of both eyes. (C) is a distortion of the lens of the eye, causing decreased visual acuity. (D) is a term used to describe a protrusion of the eyeballs that occurs with hyperthyroidism.The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school.The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?

  • Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.
  • Encourage giving two additional snacks each day to the child.
  • Recommend a daily intake of at least four glasses of whole milk.
  • Assess for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance - Correct Answers A. Question the
  • type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.

RATIONALE:

The child is overweight for height, so assessment of the child's daily diet (C) should be determined. The child does not need (A or B), both of which will increase the child's weight.Poor nutrition (D) is commonly seen in underweight children, not overweight.A child is receiving maintenance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg?(Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

  • 24
  • 61
  • 73
  • 58 - Correct Answers B. 61

RATIONALE:

The formula for calculating daily fluid requirements is: 0 to 10 kg, 100 mL/kg per day; or 10 to 20 kg, 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. To determine an hourly rate, divide the total milliliters per day by 24. 19.5 kg x 50 mL/kg = 475 mL + 1000 mL = 1475 mL / 24 hours = 61 mL/hour

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Added: Sep 5, 2025
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HESI Critical Care Exam Questions with 100% Verified Correct Answers A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care fo...

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