pg. 1 ISSA Corrective Exercise Specialist Exam Latest 2024 -2025 Complete 300+ Actual Exam Questions and 100% Correct Verified Answers/ Graded A+
What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion? - Correct Answer - Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse
Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser? - Correct Answer - Eccentric deceleration
What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus upon landing? - Correct Answer - "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes.
Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, standing, unilateral and bilateral exercises, help to place increased stress on what other area? - Correct Answer - Core musculature
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?
- Correct Answer - Eccentric deceleration
What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement? - Correct Answer - Movement efficiency
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pg. 2 What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle? - Correct Answer - Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions
Knee injuries can cause a decrease in neural control to muscles that stabilize which two joints? - Correct Answer - Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral
Which global muscle subsystem activates synergistically to control movement in the frontal plane? - Correct Answer - Lateral
Which of the following muscles inserts via the Achilles tendon? - Correct Answer - Gastrocnemius
What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive? - Correct Answer - The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a lengthened state.
Which of the following muscles serves to decelerate tibial internal rotation and knee extension? - Correct Answer - Biceps femoris
Which of the following represents ideal posture when observing the five kinetic chain checkpoints? - Correct Answer - Knees in line with second and third toes of each foot.
What term is used to describe how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences? - Correct Answer - Motor control
What would occur if the resting length of a muscle is shorter than it should be? - Correct Answer - The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced.
What component of the initial session is essential for developing a long-lasting relationship with clients? - Correct Answer - Rapport building
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pg. 3 What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies "red flags" that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments? - Correct Answer - Client Intake Screen
Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall? - Correct Answer
- Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture? - Correct Answer - Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors
Which of the following set-up scenarios are needed for optimal assessment of static posture? - Correct Answer - The client removes their shoes, wears form-fitted clothes, and comfortably stands still.
A client presents with the Janda Upper Crossed Syndrome. Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened? - Correct Answer - Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior
Which factor is most closely related to developing postural imbalances? - Correct Answer - Chronic suboptimal positioning
Which issue can occur following an acute injury that leads to altered posture and movement patterns? - Correct Answer - Chronic muscle imbalances
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to a heel rise during the overhead squat assessment? - Correct Answer - Quadriceps complex
Which category of movement assessments includes gait assessments? - Correct Answer - Dynamic
Which of the following movement assessments would assess plyometric capabilities of the upper extremities? - Correct Answer - Davies test
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pg. 4 Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first? - Correct Answer - Transitional
What type of muscle contractions are common during the jumping phase of the depth jump? - Correct Answer - Concentric
Which movement assessment utilizes bands or a cable machine to assess horizontal pushing capabilities? - Correct Answer - Loaded push assessment
Which best describes the testing leg starting positon during the active knee extension test? - Correct Answer - Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees
What is indicated as being overactive/shortened if restriction in 1st MTP extension is identified? - Correct Answer - Flexor hallucis longus
What is considered normal mobility during the 1st MTP extension test? - Correct Answer
- The great toe is above other toes.
What is the purpose of holding a ball (or other object) between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test? - Correct Answer - To lock the hips into place
Which term best describes the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow for the full range of motion of a joint? - Correct Answer - Flexibility
When is a client considered to have normal ankle dorsiflexion mobility? - Correct Answer - When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test
What should a fitness professional do to attempt to identify a potential root cause of the primary movement impairment in the foot and ankle? - Correct Answer - Perform the heels elevated overhead squat modification.
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