NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM - QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ A patie...

EXAM ELABORATIONS Aug 28, 2025

Loading document viewer...

Page 0 of 0

Document Text

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

NR 667 CEA FNP FINAL EXAM 2025

QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

GRADED A+

A patient currently undergoing concurrent chemotherapy/radiation treatment for glottic squamous cell carcinoma is admitted to the rehab unit you oversee for management of intractable nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. Admission CBC showed WBC 1.3, Hgb 7.5, PLT 45, ANC 0.8. Which of the following conditions is this patient at risk for?

Macrocytic anemia due to B12 deficiency

Iron deficiency anemia due to chronic blood loss

Microcytic anemia due to chronic kidney disease

Aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression

Your patient presents to the urgent care clinic with a swollen exudative pharynx, profound fatigue, and a very tender left upper quadrant abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Strep pharyngitis
Tonsillitis
Epstein Barr virus (EBV)

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Pancreatitis

Which of the following best characterizes presbycusis in the older adult?

Bilateral low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss
Bilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss
Unilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss
Unilateral low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss

A 35-year-old woman presents with allergic rhinitis, experiencing significant nasal congestion, sneezing, and itchy eyes. She has tried over-the-counter antihistamines with limited relief. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Oral decongestants

Nasal saline irrigation

Intranasal corticosteroids

Referral to an allergist for immunotherapy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Iron deficiency anemia due to chronic blood loss
Microcytic anemia due to chronic kidney disease
Macrocytic anemia due to B12 deficiency
Aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression

A 78 y.o. M patient reports chronic infections, bruising, fatigue, SOB, and fevers. He has a history of rectal adenocarcinoma and completed concurrent chemotherapy/radiation earlier this year. His CBC shows Hgb 7.5, PLT 88, WBC 1.2, ANC 0.8, and peripheral smear shows dysplasia. What additional work- up would you anticipate for this patient?

Colonoscopy and fecal occult blood test
Bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry
No additional work-up is required, these are expected sequela of his oncologic treatment
Repeat CBC/CMP/peripheral smear in eight weeks

Progression to Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) is a risk for untreated or poorly responsive:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Pancytopenia

Aplastic anemia

Macrocytic anemia

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Treatment for symptomatic aplastic anemia includes all the following except:

Bone marrow transplant

PRBC/Platelet/WBC transfusions

Prophylactic antibiotics

Removal of bone marrow stimulants

A patient diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia requires iron supplementation. Which of the following treatments would likely be ineffective?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO BID for a 43 y.o. F s/p gastric bypass 2 years ago
Iron sucrose 200 mg IV infusion weekly x 8 weeks in a 26 y.o. F at 34 weeks of pregnancy
Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO TID for a 25 y.o. F with menorrhagia
Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO BID for a 63 y.o. M with ulcerative colitis

Which of the following is not a common mechanism of neutrophil expenditure and resultant neutropenia?

Decreased neutrophil production in the bone marrow
Redistribution of neutrophils to the spleen or vascular endothelium
Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss
Immune destruction

Which of the following blood lead levels (BLL) would likely require chelation therapy?

< 80 mcg/dL
35 mcg/dL
>100 mcg/dL
75 mcg/dL

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A geriatric patient with anemia, back pain, osteoporosis, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

should be evaluated for:

cauda equina syndrome.
renal dystrophy.
Paget's disease.
multiple myeloma.

Overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis resulting in thrombosis and hemorrhage is a trademark of which of the following?

Thrombocytopenia
Aplastic anemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A patient on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy for recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is about to have lumbar spinal fusion surgery. The patient's warfarin is put on hold starting 5 days prior to the surgery and subcutaneous enoxaparin (Lovenox) has been ordered for DVT prophylaxis until the resumption of the warfarin. The nurse practitioner knows that the patient's postoperative warfarin dose should be

restarted based on the:

Value of her morning Prothrombin time

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

baseline PT and INR values
target INR of 2.5
Loading dose of 20 mg, plus the previous warfarin dose

Your patient presented yesterday to urgent care with symptoms of lower extremity weakness and then went home for observation with family. They have returned to urgent care, and it now appears to be affecting the patient’s abdomen in just the past few hours. What is your priority intervention?

Order physical therapy evaluation and treatment

Immediate transportation to the hospital and monitor for airway involvement

Apply oxygen via nasal cannula

Assess muscular strength in bilateral lower extremities

Which of the following is a common symptom of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

Joint pain and swelling
Frequent urination and thirst
Sudden weight gain and high blood pressure

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Persistent cough and shortness of breath

Patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome should be managed by which of the following mechanisms?

With negative pressure isolation due to contagious nature of SJS
Similarly to burn patients due to loss of fluid volume
Similarly to heart surgery patients due to risk of hypervolemia
With off floor privileges to encourage mobility and retaining muscle mass

Which of the following categories of medication are not likely to be included in the medication regimen for a patient with HIV?

NRTIs

Protease antagonists

NNRTIs

Protease inhibitors

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A patient who has active herpes zoster is at risk of shedding which contagious virus?

Varicella zoster
Herpes simplex virus -2
Herpes simplex virus -1
Shingles

Your patient presents with painless lymph node swelling, weight loss, night sweats, and asks what is wrong with him. Which of the following represents a most appropriate intervention to confirm a diagnosis of lymphoma?

Order a core needle biopsy

Order a CBC and TSH

Examine the patient

Consult pulmonology

The patient with anaphylaxis is experiencing which type of hypersensitivity response?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Type I

Type III

Type II

Type IV

Your patient has been diagnosed with HIV and wants to know the goal of treatment with “all these medications”. Which of the following represents the most reasonable goal in the treatment of HIV?

Ability to reduce to one medication as therapy rather than multiple agents

Reducing the CD4 count to an undetectable level

Reducing viral load to an undetectable level

Complete healing with no need for further medications

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient arrives the urgent care complaining of a swollen throat and vocal changes. Which of the following statements made by the patient brings an index of suspicion of angioedema?

I have been taking my lisinopril for the past week as prescribed

I do not take any ibuprofen since it gives me an upset stomach

I have never had this happen before

This seems to be getting better already getting out of the cold

Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a patient with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

Prednisone burst, then taper to a lower daily maintenance dose

Methotrexate daily

Oxycontin PRN for mild pain

Adalimumab daily

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 43-year-old male patient weighing 100kg was burned over 20 percent of their body with partial thickness burns after escaping a house fire. Using the Parkland formula, what is the most appropriate amount of IV fluid resuscitation to provide the patient in the first 8 hours?

8 Liters

2 Liters

3 Liters

4 Liters

What is the etiology of verruca?

Human Papilloma Virus infection in the skin

Chronic UV-B exposure to the skin

Chronic UV-A exposure to the skin

Group B Strep infection in the skin

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following medications is prescribed for the treatment of pinworm?

Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Corticosteroids
Lindane (Kwell)
Albendazole(Albenza)

A frail elderly male with a history of sun exposure and rough, scaly, brownish lesions on the face, ears, and hands presents with a firm erythematous, ulcerated nodule on the dorsal surface of the hand. The

most likely diagnosis is:

Seborrheic keratosis

Melanoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Sebaceous hyperplasia

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A Caucasian male patient with fair skin and green eyes is at a particularly high risk for which of the following serious skin conditions?

Wrinkles
Sunburn
Keratoacanthoma
Skin cancer

An adult female with a diagnosis of eczema was given a prescription of hydrocortisone valerate 0.2% (Westcort) ointment last week for increased itching. The patient returns today reporting no improvement and more itching. The nurse practitioner’s examination finds many vesicles and papules on hands, chest, and buttocks. The nurse practitioner also finds a linear burrow between the fingers and

prescribes:

a higher potency topical steroid.

imiquimod 5% (Aldara) cream.

ketoconazole (Nizoral) topical.

permethrin 5% (Elimite) cream.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

What is the following is not an effective strategy of treatment for verruca?

Punch biopsy
Cryotherapy
Shave biopsy
Curettage

What is the most likely diagnosis for an elderly patient with GI cancer who presents with skin pallor, conjunctival pallor, palpitations, and weakness?

Iron deficiency anemia

Peptic ulcer disease

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

The 61-year-old female patient with lichen sclerosis has been prescribed clobetasol propionate 0.05% ointment. Which of the following statements made by the patient demonstrates good understand of her new prescription?

I like this drug since I can take this for months and stop it abruptly without any side effects

I will not use this anywhere other than where it is prescribed since it has a high risk of damaging my

skin

If I don’t see results from this, I can switch to a higher potency steroid than an ointment.

I can add additional medications at the same site if they are put on top of the steroid

Herpes zoster can be difficult to diagnose in the prodromal stage, but can later be identified by the

presence of characteristic:

Unilateral vesicular lesions
Bilateral dermatomal lesions
Herpetic whitlows of the fingers
"herald spots" at the site of infection

The most specific test for gout is:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Synovial fluid with monosodium urate crystals

Hyperuricemia greater than 7mg/dL

Serum purine level

Normalized uric acid level after a trial of allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Which of the following are not items assessed for compartment syndrome?

Guarding

Pain

Sensation

Skin color

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following is a urate lowering drug that may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs in treating gouty arthritis?

Indomethacin (Indocin)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Misoprostol (Arthotec)

Salicylic acid (aspirin)

Which of the following treatments is most successful for patients with chronic fatigue syndrome?

Graded exercise program
Antiviral therapy
High carbohydrate diet
CNS stimulants

Which of the following is a urate lowering drug that may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs in treating gouty arthritis?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Salicylic acid (aspirin)

Indomethacin (Indocin)

Misoprostol (Arthotec)

Which of the following behaviors is likely to elicit rhabdomyolysis?

Participating in a full ironman triathlon

Working out for 30 minutes with plyometric exercises

Starting on a low-intensity statin for lipid reduction

Swimming for 10 minutes in a lap pool

Patients who have been in a multi-car pileup should be evaluated for which of the following elements of the secondary survey?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Evidence of adequate circulation

Work and depth of breathing

Deformities

Airway patency

A 25-year-old athlete presents with shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities. Physical examination suggests impingement syndrome. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening

Surgical intervention

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and physical activity modification

Corticosteroid injection

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An 84-year-old patient present with complaints of diffuse bilateral lower back pain which is made worse by standing. On exam the patient maintains a posture of forward flexing at the waist. The most likely diagnosis is?

Lumbar strain

Lumbar disk herniation

Spinal stenosis

Nerve root impingement

A geriatric patient with a history of gout presents with an acute attack. He had stopped taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) for a few months but resumed taking it a few days ago when the pain returned.

He says that the pain is getting worse. The nurse practitioner should:

Start another hypouricemic agent such as probenecid and titrate allopurinol to a lower dose

Continue allopurinol and order a serum uric acid test to confirm gout as the diagnosis

Start the patient on a short-term steroid

Continue allopurinol and encourage dietary changes to avoid foods high in purines

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following bacteria are commonly associated with pyelonephritis?

Klebsiella
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Enterococcus

Inability to reach the bathroom before urinating is a feature consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

urge-type incontinence
overflow incontinence
functional incontinence
stress incontinence

A 45-year-old man with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) presents with worsening urinary symptoms, including nocturia and weak stream. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?

Antibiotics

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Alpha-blockers

5-alpha-reductase inhibitors

Anticholinergics

A male adult patient presents to the clinic with sudden onset of painful hematuria. The most likely

diagnosis is:

Sexually transmitted infection

Urinary tract infection

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Bladder carcinoma

A 24-year-old female reports urinary urgency with suprapubic tenderness relieved by bladder emptying.The patient has been evaluated by urology and urogynecology. Review of laboratory reports reveal

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

negative urinalysis and cultures, negative results for sexually transmitted infections, and an unremarkable cystoscopy. Which of the following is an appropriate plan of care?

Referral to psychiatry
Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) 100 mg oral once daily
Amitriptyline (Elavil) 25 mg oral once daily
Propranolol (Inderal) 10 mg oral once daily

Which of the following states represents an example of postrenal failure?

Blood clot obstructing a foley catheter after a transurethral prostatectomy
Hypotension after overdosing on lisinopril
Contrast induced nephropathy after an angiogram
Overuse of furosemide

An older adult patient with chronic renal disease has been experiencing a steady decrease in glomular filtration rate over the past 3 months. Which type(s) of antihypertensive medication would be most appropriate for the patient at this time?

Beta-blocker, thiazide diuretic

Aldosterone antagonist

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, thiazide diuretic

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, angiotensin-receptor blocker

Patients presenting to the emergency department with hematuria and RBC casts in their urine should be considered for which diagnosis?

Acute tubular necrosis
Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic syndrome
Pyelonephritis

A 25-year-old woman presents with a urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed by urinalysis. She has no allergies. What is the most appropriate first-line antibiotic treatment?

Nitrofurantoin
Amoxicillin
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Ciprofloxacin A

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?

WBC casts in urine

Absence of albuminuria

CD4 count of 50 with hematuria

Elevated WBCs on urinalysis

In treating a pregnant female with migraine headaches, which of the following drugs would be contraindicated?

Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex)
Frovatriptan (Frova)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)

Your patient has been noticing progressively worsening muscular weakness over the past 15 months to the point he is not able to stand and is effectively wheelchair bound. Which of the following diagnoses can reasonably be excluded?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Myasthenia Gravis

Anterior cord syndrome

Descending Guillain-Barre

Multiple Sclerosis

A 70-year-old man presents with acute onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. His symptoms started 2 hours ago. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

Administer intravenous tPA

Start anticoagulation therapy

Perform a CT scan of the head

Administer aspirin

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An adult female presents to the clinic with complaints of dizziness, weakness, fatigue, weight loss, and increased tanning of scars, areolas, and hand creases. The patient's husband states that she seems depressed and is eating a lot of salt. To determine the suspected cause of the patient's symptoms, the

nurse practitioner would order a:

Random glucose test
Liver function test
Complete blood count (CBC)
Morning cortisol level

An adolescent male college freshman presents to the student health office with concerns about succeeding in school. He is in his second semester and is on academic probation because of poor grades.He states that he has always struggled in school but managed to graduate from high school with a 3.5 grade point average because his parents monitored and controlled his studying...

explaining that his high school grades prove that he does not have a learning disorder, he just needs

to work harder

acknowledging that he might have an attention disorder or learning disability, and then refer him for

an evaluation

calling his parents after he leaves the office to report his school problems and recommending tutoring

services

informing him that he might have an attention disorder or learning disability, but is too old for any

diagnosis or treatment

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A woman with vascular dementia presents with agitation. Your first action should be to do which of the

following:

prescribe an anxiolytic
mini mental exam
prescribe an antipsychotic
assess for infection

A patient who presents to your clinic with an acute change in facial symmetry, inability to speak clearly and unilateral muscular weakness should be transported for evaluation immediately as treatment for embolic stroke with tPA within which timeframe?

Less than 24 hrs.
Less than 8 hrs.
Less than 4.5 hrs.
Less than 6 hrs.

An adult patient presents with a history of headaches. Which new symptom should immediately cause the patient to be referred for further evaluation and possible neuroimaging?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Frontal headache upon awakening
Aura of visual flashing lights
Unilateral motor weakness
Unilateral pulsating head pain

Medication overuse (analgesia rebound) headaches occur:

In approximately half of all patients with chronic daily headaches.
infrequently in patients who use analgesics regularly.
occasionally during switching from one type of analgesic to another.
in the majority of patients using analgesics.

Patients who take chronic anti-seizure medication should be notified of which risk of abrupt change or discontinuation of these medications?

Increased seizure threshold
Discontinuation syndrome
Decreased seizure threshold
Flu-like symptoms

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A healthy unvaccinated child is exposed to Hepatitis A. The best option for therapy is:

hepatitis B vaccine
zidovudine
immune globulin
Inactive hepatitis A vaccine

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with a rash that started on his face and spread to the trunk. The rash is described as "slapped cheek" appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Roseola
Fifth disease
Rubella
Measles

By what age should a child typically be able to walk independently?

15 months
16 months
18 months
12 months

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A nurse practitioner is evaluating an infant for possible colic. Which of the following could indicate the need for a more extensive evaluation?

Moist mucus membranes and flat fontanels
3-oz (85 g) weight gain over the past 2 weeks
Stool negative for occult blood
Onset at 4 weeks of age

A 5-year-old girl presents with fever, rash, hacking cough, and swollen, tender lymph nodes. The rash started on her face and has spread to the rest of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Fifth disease
Chickenpox
Measles
Scarlet fever

A neonate has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema. History includes a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most likely cause of the presenting signs and symptoms?

Chlamydia trachomatis infection

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Viral conjunctivitis

E-coli infection

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

At what age should a child typically begin to show interest in playing with other children and engaging in cooperative play?

5 years

2 years

3 years

4 years

A 7-year-old child presents with group A streptococcal infection confirmed by throat culture. Past history includes treatment for positive streptococcal infection with erythromycin (EryPed oral suspension) 3 weeks ago. What is the most appropriate next intervention?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Obtain culture for all household members.

Treat with azithromycin (Zithromax) for 10 days.

Treat with amoxicillin for 10 days.

Intramuscular Penicillin.

A late adolescent is brought to the nurse practitioner’s office by her mother, who is concerned about her daughter’s recent weight loss and the potential of purging herself after meals. The daughter denies any self-induced vomiting, starvation or excessive activity. History reveals that the daughter was consistently in the 50th percentile for weight but is now in the 10th percentile. She does state that she jogs 5 miles a day and is in good condition. In addition to a complete blood count with differential, which of the following laboratory tests will be most helpful for further assessment?

Electrolytes, FSH, stool for occult blood

Creatine phosphokinase, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine, urinalysis

Electrolytes, fasting blood sugar

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 5-year-old boy presents with a sore throat, fever, and a sandpaper-like rash. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Measles

Fifth disease

Kawasaki disease

Scarlet fever

A 25-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of fluctuating mood states, including periods of mild depression and hypomania. These symptoms have not been severe enough to meet the criteria for major depressive or manic episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cyclothymic disorder

Bipolar II disorder

Dysthymia

Bipolar I disorder

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 30-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of persistent sadness, loss of interest in activities she once enjoyed, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. She also reports changes in appetite and sleep patterns. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Major depressive disorder

Bipolar disorder

Generalized anxiety disorder

Dysthymia

Which of the following is a common physical sign of bulimia nervosa?

Calluses or scars on the knuckles
Persistent fever
Enlargement of the thyroid gland
Rapid fluctuation in weight gain or loss

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder:

Wellbutrin

Zoloft

Remeron

Buspar

Patients who overdose on amitriptyline should be treated with which of the following agents?

Glucagon IV

Sodium bicarbonate IV

Calcium chloride IV

Phenylephrine PO

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Treatment for extrapyramidal symptoms should include which of the following?

Discontinuing use of diphenhydramine
Increasing the dose of the typical antipsychotic
Discontinuing use of Cogentin
Switching to an atypical antipsychotic from a typical antipsychotic

The 32-year-old female patient newly diagnosed with depression is likely to be started on which of the following agents with the fewest risks of extrapyramidal symptoms?

Atypical antipsychotics

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Tricyclic antidepressants

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following need to be assessed when determining if a patient is a risk of self-harm or harm to others?

Physical examination

Means to commit the harm to self or others

Social history

Medical history

Which of the following represent precipitating factors for excited delirium?

Lopressor use
LSD use
Cigar smoking
Amitriptyline use

A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 complains of midcycle spotting.She has not missed any doses and uses no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Double dosing for 2 days

Providing reassurance

Modifying use

Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35

A male presents with a painless penile lesion which has been present for 4 weeks. There is no urethral discharge. He is sexually active with multiple partners and does not use a condom. The initial diagnosis

is:

Primary syphilis

Herpes simplex type 2

Lichen planus

Chancroid

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

In treating a pregnant female with migraine headaches, which of the following drugs would be contraindicated?

Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Frovatriptan (Frova)
Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex)
Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)

A patient is 28 weeks pregnant and presents with a single episode of vaginal bleeding. Prenatal progress is normal, and the patient denies pain, vaginal itching, or discharge. Which of the following is the most appropriate to determine a diagnosis?

non-stress test

Nitrazine test

Ultrasound

Bimanual cervical examination

Which of the following tests is the most effective in differentiating between solid and cystic breast lesions?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Screening mammography

Fine needle aspiration

Ultrasonography

Xeromammographic

A pap smear report for a 24-year-old indicates atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The patient's previous Pap smears were normal. The nurse practitioner should next:

Have the patient return for a Pap smear in 1 year
Repeat the Pap smear in 1 month
Refer for colposcopy
Request HPV testing

A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with nausea and vomiting. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Advise bed rest

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Recommend small, frequent meals
Prescribe metoclopramide
Prescribe ondansetron

A 28-year-old patient presents with profuse yellow vaginal discharge, odor, and local irritation. She reports completing a 7-day course of oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d. 4 weeks ago. She has had multiple recurrences over the last 18 months. Microscopic examination reveals presence of clue cells.Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment intervention?

Oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d., plus metronidazole vaginal gel (MetroGel), for 5 days
Treat both patient and partner(s) with oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d., for 7 days
Treat patient with metronidazole vaginal gel (MetroGel) b.i.d. and partner(s) with tetracycline, 250

mg q.i.d., for 7 days

Metronidazole vaginal gel (MetroGel) twice weekly for 4 to 6 months

Your 25-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, fever, diarrhea, lower abdominal pain, and erythematous palms. Based on these symptoms, what element should be included in the physical examination?

Pulmonary exam
Rectal exam
Pelvic exam
Musculoskeletal exam

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Risk factors for genital herpes include:

genetic transmission.

multiple sexual partners and frequent use of public spas.

infection with other sexually transmitted diseases before the age of 12.

multiple sexual partners and years of sexual activity.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of asthma in adults?

Weight loss
Frequent sinus infections
Persistent cough, especially at night
High blood pressure

he optimal treatment for latent tuberculosis is:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Isoniazid (Nydrazid) for 9 months.

ethambutol for 6 months.

rifampin (Rifadin) for 5 months.

pyrazinamide for 6 months.

A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with an acute exacerbation, including increased sputum production and dyspnea. He has no known drug allergies. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic treatment?

Azithromycin

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Levofloxacin

Doxycycline

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

What does force vital capacity (FVC) represent in pulmonary function testing?

The maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation.

Maximum volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after maximum inspiration.

Total volume of air exhaled during the first second of forced expiration.

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after forced exhalation

Recommendation for advanced COPD treatment:

daily antibiotics
short acting beta agonist
oral bronchodilator
long-acting beta agonist

A 55-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with a persistent cough and hemoptysis. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary lung nodule. What is the most appropriate next step?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

CT scan of the chest
Bronchoscopy
PET scan
Sputum culture

The nurse practitioner caring for the hospitalized 14-year-old patient with multiple days of high concentration oxygen should evaluate the patient for which of the following exams?

Vagus nerve exam
2D Echocardiography
Facial nerve exam
Visual acuity test

Anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium (Atrovent) and tiotropium (Spiriva) are used in COPD

primarily to:

treat hypoxemia.
expand the lung fields.
induce bronchodilation.
decrease airway inflammation.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient has evidence of Kerley B lines. Which of the following diagnoses might this suggest?

Congestive heart failure

Sarcoidosis

COVID-19 pneumonia

Poryphera

In emphysema management the first step in treating patients with mild disease is the use of:

sustained release theophylline
inhaled corticosteroid
long-acting anticholinergic
short acting beta agonist

Where can Crohn's disease be located within the GI tract and how does it present (continuous or patchy)?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Patchy inflammation throughout the small bowel and colon
In the colon only and patchy
In the esophagus and stomach only
In the colon continuous throughout

Adult patient with left lower quadrant abdominal pain dx with diverticulitis. No allergies. Following is tx

of choice:

Keflex
Prednisone
Medrol
Bactrim

An adult patient presents with left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness and a history of diverticular disease. The patient denies any fever or vomiting, and the last episode was over 10 years ago.

Suspecting this is a mild and uncomplicated episode the best treatment plan is:

CT scan
ciprofloxacin
CBC and metabolic panel
increase whole grain and water intake

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 56-year-old male with recurrent upper GI bleeds has had an upper endoscopy with no signs of bleeding found. Which procedure/procedures could be done to further investigate his source of bleeding select all that apply?

Pill video capsule
Colonoscopy

C. ERCP

Deep small bowel enteroscopy

An adult female returns to the clinic with severe profuse watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and cramping after treatment with Cipro x 10 days. WBC is 12.5, stool culture is positive for c diff. The NP would

recommend:

Acidophilus
Cleocin 450
Metronidazole 500 tid for 10-14 d
No further treatment

A 45-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Endoscopy reveals villous atrophy of the small intestine. What is the most appropriate initial management?

High-fiber diet

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Antibiotics
Gluten-free diet
Lactose-free diet

A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe flank pain radiating to the groin, nausea, and vomiting. He reports a history of similar episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal calculi
Chronic kidney disease
Pyelonephritis
Acute cystitis

The most common side effect of the oral ribavirin used in the treatment of hepatitis C is:

weight gain.
depression.
hemolytic anemia.
hypothyroidism

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An adult female with rheumatoid arthritis presents to the office for a follow up. She is currently taking methotrexate and over the counter Ibuprofen. Today she complains of severe stomach pain and intense abdominal cramping. After the nurse practitioner makes appropriate adjustments to the patient's medication regimen, the patient still complains of abdominal discomfort and reports dark stools. The

practitioner suspects:

Gastric ulceration

An older adult patient with new onset GERD, cough, heartburn. Initial tx

Antacid and lifestyle modification/weight loss
Sucralfate
H2 receptor antagonist

D. PPI

Which sphincter tends to be involved with the symptoms associated with patients who have GERD?

Pyloric sphincter
Internal anal sphincter
Lower esophageal sphincter
leocecal sphincter

Which antibiotic is appropriate for initial treatment of sinusitis?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

azithromycin (Zpack)
amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin)
Cefdinir
penicillin (PCN

Your patient is on rivaroxaban, a potent novel oral anticoagulant, and presents to the urgent care in no apparent distress with a right nare that is bleeding through the current self-packed gauze. This has been persistent for the past 30 minutes without any evidence of stopping. Which is the most appropriate next action?

Apply direct manual compression to the bridge of the nose and consult ENT

Consult anesthesia for intubation Remove the current nasal packing to evaluate further Attempt blind cautery with silver nitrate sticks around the packing A

A young adult presents with a sore throat, nasal congestion, postnasal drip, no temperature elevation, and no lower respiratory involvement. The most appropriate initial intervention is to:

Obtain a Monospot test
Obtain a nasopharyngeal culture and sensitivity
Prescribe a prophylactic course of oral penicillin
Recommend gargling with warm salt water

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 51-year-old male patient presents to the urgent care with a unilateral injected cornea and nausea. He reports visual acuity changes and light sensitivity. Which of the following is not included in your differential?

Digoxin toxicity
Acute angle glaucoma
Cluster headache
Chalazion

Patients presenting with globe rupture should be sent to immediate surgery due to which of the following reasons?

Pain associated to the traumatic event is less when surgery is performed immediately
Rapid surgery can increase incidence of endophthalmitis
Loss of vision is worse if surgery is immediate
Delay in surgery can increase incidence of choroidal hemorrhage

An older adult female reports nasal congestion, clear nasal secretions, and a post-nasal drip since going through menopause. After a thorough examination reveals no significant abnormalities, the nurse

practitioner diagnoses the patient with:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Allergic rhinitis
Vasomotor rhinitis
Viral rhinitis
Allergic sinusitis

A 60-year-old man presents with persistent hoarseness for the past 3 months. He has a history of smoking. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Advise gargling with warm salt water
Prescribe voice rest and hydration
Referral to an otolaryngologist for laryngoscopy
Start a course of oral corticosteroids

Your 25-year-old male patient presents to the primary care office with a complaint of sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and flu-like symptoms. Which of the following potentially life-threatening illnesses should you rule out in your evaluation?

Tonsillitis
Leukoplakia
Lichens planus
Retropharyngeal

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your 24-year-old male patient has been admitted post-motor vehicle collision at a high rate of speed. A CT head is performed revealing a pyramidal fracture involving the lateral walls of the maxillary sinuses and inferior orbital rim. Which classification of fracture is this?

Le fort IV
Le Fort II
Le Fort I
Le Fort III

A young adult female presents with painful swelling of the right cheek anterior to the TMJ. The diagnosis is sialadenitis. To determine the appropriate treatment for this patient, the most common infecting

organism in bacterial sialadenitis is:

Moraxella catarrhalis
Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus
Staphylococcus aeurus

An adult patient present with acute onset of right eye pain, redness and decreased vision. Suspecting

open-angle glaucoma the nurse practitioner should:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe topical steroid
Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe pilocarpine
Advise applying warm compresses and returning in the morning
Prescribe antibiotic ointment and pilocarpine

Your patient has a Le Forte III fracture and is admitted for close monitoring. Which of the following represent a potential complication of this type of fracture?

Cerebrospinal fluid leak
Sternocleidomastoid impingement
Tetany
Loss of bowel tone

A patient states they do not want to have any further medical care and wishes to leave against medical advice. Unknown to you, the healthcare tech then held their arm down to get an IV catheter placed against their will. The healthcare tech is at risk of being charged with which of the following:

Battery
Verbal assault
Verbal battery
None of these options

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following risks of patient use of convenient/urgent care may increase the risk of a nurse practitioner to miss subtle changes in the patient's condition over time?

Lack of longitudinal management and trending
Repeating of tests
Over testing
Overuse of medical imaging

Evidence based health screening is utilized with an understanding of the limits of interpreting the results. In this context, the term sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to:

Detect an abnormal condition when it exists
Detect the prevalence of a given condition
Provide reproducible results
Identify the specific condition

Your irate patient on involuntary hold due to risk of harm to themself or others says they are going to "kill you when you leave work after they get discharged". This statement is an example of which of the following?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Verbal assault
Verbal battery
Emotional battery
None of these options

Multimodal analgesia involves the use of multiple agents to avoid reliance on which particular class of medication?

Opioids

B. NSAIDS

Muscle relaxants
Topical analgesia agents

The nurse practitioner is caring for an acutely-ill 92 year old ICU intubated patient not responding to the best available care after a perforated gastric ulcer who underwent surgical exploration and washout two weeks ago. They have gone into ventricular tachycardia twice this morning and resuscitated with the use of DC cardioversion and IV amiodarone. Subsequent labs reveal profound lactic acidosis and they are not expected to survive the day due to a presumed diagnosis of mesenteric infarct. Before the first surgery, the patient told you and the family they did not want to undergo extreme measures to sustain their life and would like to "go out with some dignity". Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate consult to make at this time?Surgical consult for emergent abdominal re-exploration

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An 87-year-old female has a history of ovarian cancer. She recently completed the tenth of 26 chemotherapy treatments. She informs the nurse practitioner that she plans to stop chemotherapy; she has lived a good life and is ready to die. She is alert and very active, and lives with her son. The family is determined that the patient will complete the chemotherapy. The nurse practitioner's most appropriate

action is to:

support the patient's decision

In a mass casualty situation with presumed anthrax exposure, the drug of choice for prophylaxis is:

doxycycline (Doryx).
tetracycline (Achromycin).
chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin).
amoxicillin (Amoxil).

Which of the following refers to the primary access point of medical care patients are encouraged to use to aid in providing continuity and reduction of cost per the Affordable Care Act?

The Medical Home
The Emergency Department
Urgent Care
Consulting Healthcare Providers

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up of his well-controlled hypertension and expresses concerns about maintaining bone health. He is a smoker and has a sedentary lifestyle. What is the most appropriate initial recommendation to reduce his risk of osteoporosis?

Weight-bearing exercise and smoking cessation
Start bisphosphonates
Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Hormone replacement therapy

Which following medical term refers to the concept of not intentionally harming the patient while providing care?

Nonmaleficence
Negligence
Beneficence
Assault

A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring

growth, development, and:

fecal occult blood test.
white blood cell levels.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

urine dipsticks.
hemoglobin

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the rehab unit you oversee for management of pain due to pelvic fracture after motor vehicle collision. Admission labs show ANC of 1.4. The patient is asymptomatic and denies history of repeated infection. What is the most appropriate level of intervention for his patient?Observation until the patient becomes symptomatic

A 49 y.o. M patient, who works in an automotive battery factory, presents to urgent care with three-day onset of abdominal pain, constipation, anorexia, muscle aches, headache, and excessive fatigue.Considering the patient's occupation, the provider should include which of the following labs in his work-up?

C. difficile stool culture
Blood lead level

C .Hemoglobin A1C

Vitamin B12/Folate

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 35-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain in his back, chest, and extremities.He has a history of sickle cell disease. What is the most appropriate initial management during a pain crisis?

Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Blood transfusion
Hydroxyurea
Hospitalization for intravenous fluids and opioids

restarted based on the:

baseline PT and INR values

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!Which of the following is not a common mechanism of neutrophil expenditure and resultant neutropenia?

Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Immune destruction
Redistribution of neutrophils to the spleen or vascular endothelium
Decreased neutrophil production in the bone marrow

A patient is taking warfarin, 4 mg daily for atrial fibrillation. The patient's current International

Normalized Ratio (INR) is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner would:

hold the warfarin for 4 days and then recheck the INR.
increase the warfarin to 5 mg daily.
decrease the warfarin to 3 mg daily.
hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck in two days.

A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being treated with ferrous sulfate.

Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of anemia within:

2 weeks.
4 weeks.
8 months.
3 months

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

All the following thrombocytopenic emergencies require immediate action except:

Pregnancy with severe thrombocytopenia
Bleeding in the setting of severe thrombocytopenia
Suspected acute leukemia, aplastic anemia, or other bone marrow failure syndrome

D Scheduled surgical procedure with mild thrombocytopenia D

Treatment for symptomatic aplastic anemia includes all the following except:

Prophylactic antibiotics
Bone marrow transplant
PRBC/Platelet/WBC transfusions
Removal of bone marrow stimulants

The best laboratory test to distinguish iron deficiency anemia from other anemias is:

serum ferritin level.
iron binding capacity.
mean corpuscular volume.
transferrin saturation

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following is not a common mechanism of neutrophil expenditure and resultant neutropenia?

Immune destruction
Decreased neutrophil production in the bone marrow
Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss
Redistribution of neutrophils to the spleen or vascular endothelium

A patient with chronic liver disease presents to Urgent Care after developing frequent, severe epistaxis, petechia, and hematuria. Which of the following conditions have they likely developed?

Thrombocytosis
Neutropenia
Factor V deficiency
Thrombocytopenia

A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for developing which of the following conditions?

B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia
Liver disease
Iron deficiency anemia

Your patient has been diagnosed with stage 4 Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which is the most likely treatment strategy to be used for this patient?

Referral to hospice for comfort measures only
Radiotherapy alone
Radiotherapy and or chemotherapy
No therapy

What is the first-line treatment for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
Corticosteroids
acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Ibuprofen

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Patients with a butterfly rash on their face and symptoms of fatigue and joint pain should be worked up for which of the following disease states?

Pityriasis rosea
Rosacea
Herpes zoster
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE

Your patient presents with 2-month progressive weakness in legs, loss of coordination, and loss of bladder tone. Which of the following diseases should be investigated?

Multiple sclerosis
Multiple myeloma
Embolic stroke
Descending Guillain-Barre

Patients with a new diagnosis of primary progressive multiple sclerosis are most likely to benefit from treatment with which of the following agents?

Rituximab
Chronic opioids
Chronic high dose corticosteroids
Sulfamethoxazole

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Treatment includes prednisone with physical therapy. The nurse practitioner advises the patient to begin disease-modifying therapy:

if MRI of the brain shows a new lesion.
as soon as possible.
if symptoms remain the same for 3 months.
if symptoms worsen

Your patient has been noticing bilateral joint pain in the knees and feet for about 6 months and has been started on methotrexate. Which of the following diagnoses correlate to this treatment plan?

Polymyalgia rheumatica
Degenerative joint disease
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis

Your patient has been started on sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection and two days later states she feels painful blistering on her skin. Which of the following life-threatening disease states are you most concerned about?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Erythema multiforme
Scleroderma
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Vasculitis

A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, joint pain, and a butterfly-shaped rash on her face. What is the most appropriate initial management in primary care?

NSAIDs
Referral to rheumatology
Corticosteroids
Antivirals

What is the most likely diagnosis for an elderly patient with GI cancer who presents with skin pallor, conjunctival pallor, palpitations, and weakness?

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Iron deficiency anemia
Peptic ulcer disease

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

What is the definitive treatment for uncomplicated skin abscess on the arm?

Doxycycline IV q 3 days
Prescription of gram-negative antibiotic coverage
Incision and drainage
NSAID pain relief and warm compresses

A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of a red, swollen, and painful lower leg. Examination reveals erythema and warmth suggestive of cellulitis. He has no known allergies. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic treatment?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Cephalexin

Treatment of acute poison ivy includes:

SoluMedrol
Synalar

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Prednisone 40mg for 10 days
Sporonax

During the preadmission history and physical, you examine your patient and find a new multicolored mole measuring 9mm with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Simple Nevus
Cutaneous Horn
Melanoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Which of the following does not represent populations at risk for skin cancer?

Caucasian
Light skin that freckles easily
Dark skin with minimal freckles
Male sex

Erysipelas typically presents on the face with:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Painful progressive arrythmia and edema
A papular erythematous malar rash
Vesicles on an erythematous base following a dermatome
Scattered ruborous macules across the cheeks

All the following are thought to cause acne except

increase in androgens
ingestion of soda and chocolate
bacterial contamination of the skin
genetics

The patient with a sebaceous cyst on the arm that is now draining is noted to have unilateral cellulitic streaking ascending proximally from the abscess site. Which of the following represents the most appropriate treatment in this scenario?

Incision and drainage without antibiotic coverage
Oral antibiotics without incision and drainage
Incision and drainage plus IV vancomycin or other anti MRSA coverage
Incision and drainage plus metronidazole PO

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following is a true statement about squamous cell carcinoma?

Basal cell carcinoma is more prone to metastasis than squamous cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma is more common than basal cell carcinoma
Metastatic disease in squamous carcinoma is less common than basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma is more likely to have metastasis than basal cell carcinoma

An 87-year-old patient presents with round, pruritic plaques and small vesicles on the lower legs. The

most likely diagnosis is:

allergic contact dermatitis.
cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
plaque psoriasis.
nummular eczema

During the preadmission history and physical, you examine your patient and find a new multicolored mole measuring 9mm with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma
Simple Nevus

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Cutaneous Horn

most likely diagnosis is:

Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Seborrheic keratosis
Sebaceous hyperplasia

Your patient presents with darkened, velvety creases of the groin, neck, and axilla with skin tags present. What does this possibly indicate?

Chronic hypertension
Evidence of insulin resistance
Actinic keratosis
Chronic azotemia

While evaluating your patient who presented to the emergency department with a panic attack, the patient states their reason for the panic attack was they found out they are going to die from skin cancer

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

because their sister is a CNA and found melanoma on their skin. You perform a skin survey to find a 9mm seborrheic keratosis as the source of the concern. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the patient?Fortunately, this is a benign lesion and poses no risk of malignancy.

Patients who present with decreased joint space of a lumbar vertebrae on x-ray are likely diagnosed with which of the following chronic disease states?

Lumbosacral strain
Spondylolisthesis
Osteoarthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis

A patient has moderate osteoarthritis. Which of the following dietary supplement could be recommended to reduce pain and joint space narrowing?

cinnamon
red yeast rice
glucosamine
garlic

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A high school football player presents Monday morning after sustaining an injury Friday night. The injuring play involved a tackle to the lateral right leg. The player walked off the field but was unable to play the rest of the game and has been in pain and limping since. In assessing for a medical meniscus

and lateral meniscus injury, the nurse practitioner should perform the:

Thomas test
Lachman test
McMurray test
PSOAS test

An adolescent athlete presents with shoulder pain and inability to raise the arm above the shoulder. The

most likely diagnosis is:

Rotator cuff tear
Polymyositis
Cervical nerve root compression
Adhesive capsulitis

An adolescent football player presents to the urgent care with an acute knee injury. He heard a pop when his knee buckled. The nurse practitioner notes a positive anterior drawer test. The most likely

diagnosis is injury to the:

medial collateral ligament.
anterior cruciate ligament.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

posterior cruciate ligament.
lateral collateral ligament

A 60-year-old woman with osteoporosis presents for a follow-up visit. What is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment to prevent further bone loss?

Hormone replacement therapy
Bisphosphonates
Vitamin D supplements only
Calcium supplements only

An adult male presents complaining of a left ankle injury that occurred 2 days ago while he was playing basketball. The patient cannot bear weight and ROM is limited by pain. What acute injuries would be included in the differential diagnosis for this patient?

Ankle sprain, ankle fracture
Achilles tendonitis, ankle fracture
Ankle sprain, inflammatory bursitis
Stress fracture, Morton's neuroma

Which of the following are not items assessed for compartment syndrome?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Sensation
Skin color
Guarding
Pain

A 25-year-old athlete presents with shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities. Physical examination suggests impingement syndrome. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and physical activity modification
Surgical intervention
Corticosteroid injection

Your patient has presented with an acute GI bleed. In working up potential causes, which of the following scenarios is most probable as a reason for the bleed?

Chronic low-dose acetaminophen for rheumatoid arthritis pain
Four days of high dose of naproxen sodium for joint pain after a long hike
Tapered dose of prednisone for a contact dermatitis
Chronic topical use of diclofenac gel over a knee with arthritic pain

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An adult female with a BMI of 31 has pain and weakness in her legs, buttocks, and upper thighs after prolonged walking or standing. She has osteoporosis of the hips. The patient obtains short term relief by leaning forward (stooping) when grocery shopping or sitting. The suspected diagnosis is:

lumber spinal stenosis
peripheral vascular disease
herniated disc

arterial insufficiency A

Patients who have been in a multi-car pileup should be evaluated for which of the following elements of the secondary survey?

Deformities
Evidence of adequate circulation
Work and depth of breathing
Airway patency

The most specific test for gout is:

Synovial fluid with monosodium urate crystals
Hyperuricemia greater than 7mg/dL

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Normalized uric acid level after a trial of allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Serum purine level

Elevated calcium levels may suggest which of the following?

Vitamin D deficiency
Calcitonin deficit
Bone cancer
Effective bisphosphonate therapy

Nerve root impingement
Lumbar strain
Lumbar disk herniation
Spinal stenosis

A 65-year-old woman with osteoporosis presents with acute onset of severe back pain after lifting a heavy object. What is the most likely diagnosis?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Herniated disc
Degenerative disc disease
Lumbar strain
Vertebral compression fracture

Your patient has a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease and presents after one month of treatment to urgent care with acute hypotensive episode with a blood pressure of 90/44. Which medication is likely responsible for this?

Amantadine at subtherapeutic doses
Carbidopa/levodopa overdose
Benztropine use at therapeutic doses
Carbidopa/levodopa at subtherapeutic doses

Medication overuse (analgesia rebound) headaches occur:

infrequently in patients who use analgesics regularly.
in approximately half of all patients with chronic daily headaches.
occasionally during switching from one type of analgesic to another.
In the majority of patients using analgesics

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Patients who have which of the following comorbidities should avoid ergot and triptan anti-migraine medications?

Coronary artery disease
Chronic marijuana use
Crohn's disease
Diverticulitis

A 70-year-old man presents with acute onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. His symptoms started 2 hours ago. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

Perform a CT scan of the head
Administer aspirin
Administer intravenous tPA
Start anticoagulation therapy

A 28-year-old female requests contraceptive pills. The nurse practitioner knows that the patient is not a

candidate for estrogen-containing contraceptive if she:

Has a history of migraine headache with aura
Used to smoke ½ a pack of cigarettes per day

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Has a history of fibrocystic breast disease
Drinks alcohol more than 3 days per week

Which of the following constellations of symptoms, lasting more than 3 months, is most common in fibromyalgia?

Depression, anxiety, fatigue
Tinnitus, joint stiffness and swelling
Diffuse pain, sleep abnormality, fatigue
Unilateral pain, headache, anxiety

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!An 88-year-old male presents with concerns about memory loss. He feels good, takes an aspirin daily, and has no chronic diseases. He lives alone, drives his own car, and manages his financial affairs. To evaluate his memory, which of the following tests should the nurse practitioner choose?

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
Myers-Briggs Test
Geriatric Depression Scale
Mini-Cog Test

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A geriatric male with trigeminal neuralgia who has a history of hypertension and depression is currently taking amlodipine besylate (Norvasc), 5 mg daily and sertraline (Zoloft), 25 mg daily. He is allergic to penicillin and imipramine (Tofranil). The patient has been treated unsuccessfully with gabapentin

(Neurotin). The drug of choice for this patient would be:

Pentazocine (Talwin)
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Fentanyl (Durgesic)
Oxycodone-acetaminophen (Percocet)

nurse practitioner would order a:

Morning cortisol level
Liver function test
Complete blood count (CBC)
Random glucose test

What of the following represents an abnormal level for intracranial pressure?

12 cm H2O
10 cm H2O

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

5 cm H2O
24 cm H2O

An adult female presents with the following symptoms: clear nasal discharge, nasal obstruction and tenderness over the antrum, throbbing facial pain referred to the supraorbital area and worsened by head movements or stooping. Which antibiotic is appropriate for initial treatment of sinusitis?

Cefdinir (Omnicef)
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

The use of GABA-agonizing drugs is likely going to have which effect on seizure threshold?

None of the above
No change
Increase
Decrease

Your anxious 73-year-old male patient who presents to urgent care after a panic attack notices he has a rapid cyclical rate tremor and is concerned he has undiagnosed Parkinson's disease since his family

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

history includes this diagnosis in his father. Which of the following clinical findings noted above suggest this is an unlikely diagnosis?

Age
Gender
Rapid rate of tremor
Family history of Parkinson's disease

Which of the following agents does not represent a common cause for bacterial meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Escherichia Coli

Your 63-year-old female patient newly started on paroxetine after the death of her spouse presents to the urgent care with a lethargic state and a sodium of 125. Which of the following do you suspect?

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
Serotonin syndrome (SS

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 5-year-old presents with a 3-month history of soling his pants. The child was successfully toilet trained at 3. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Encopresis
Intussusception
Enuresis
Hirschsprung's disease

What is the most common trigger for asthma exacerbations in children?

Tobacco smoke
Cold air
Physical activity
Seasonal allergies

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with a rash that started on his face and spread to the trunk. The rash is described as "slapped cheek" appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Roseola

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Measles
Rubella
Fifth disease

A late adolescent is brought to the nurse practitioner's office by her mother, who is concerned about her daughter's recent weight loss and the potential of purging herself after meals. The daughter denies any self-induced vomiting, starvation or excessive activity. History reveals that the daughter was consistently in the 50th percentile for weight but is now in the 10th percentile. She does state that she jogs 5 miles a day and is in good condition. In addition to a complete blood count with differential, which of the following laboratory tests will be most helpful for further assessment?Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine, urinalysis

At what age should a child typically be able to sit without support?

4 months
9 months
6 months
12 months

An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T = 103°F (39.4°C).Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left sternal border. After initiation of

treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate intervention is to:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

obtain an EKG.
reevaluate the patient in 10 days
obtain an echocardiogram.
refer the patient to a cardiologist

A 4-year-old child presents with a chronic cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing, especially at night.On examination, you hear expiratory wheezing and observe the use of accessory muscles for breathing.What is the most likely diagnosis?

Bronchitis
Asthma
Croup
Pneumonia

A 15-year-old adolescent athlete complains of chest pain and fainting during intense exercise. On examination, a systolic ejection murmur is heard that increases with standing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pulmonary hypertension
Aortic stenosis
Mitral valve prolapse
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 5-year-old boy presents with a sore throat, fever, and a sandpaper-like rash. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Scarlet fever
Fifth disease
Kawasaki disease
Measles

A 13-year-old is concerned because she has not yet begun to menstruate. Physical examination indicates that the patient is at Sexual Maturity Rating IV and is of average height and weight. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to this patient?"Your development is exactly as expected for your age; you'll probably begin to have periods within a year."

A 5-year-old girl presents with fever, rash, hacking cough, and swollen, tender lymph nodes. The rash started on her face and has spread to the rest of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Chickenpox
Scarlet fever
Fifth disease
Measles

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

During a well-child examination of a 24 month old, premature tooth decay and inflamed gums, particularly of the maxillary incisors, are noted. The approach to this problem includes: referring the child to a dentist, assessing for bottle feeding and fluoride in local water

A mother presents her 12-month-old child with concern because the child does not yet say "mama" or "dada." The mother reports that in the first months of life, the child enjoyed being talked to. The past

medical history is negative for ear infections. The nurse practitioner should:

evaluate for hearing loss.
this is a normal growth and development finding.
check for cerumen impaction.
refer to speech therapy

A 7-year-old boy presents with recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. What is the most appropriate initial test?

Colonoscopy
Serum electrolytes
Celiac disease antibody test
Abdominal ultrasound

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A healthy unvaccinated child is exposed to Hepatitis A. The best option for therapy is:

zidovudine
immune globulin
hepatitis B vaccine
inactive hepatitis A vaccine

Which of the following fine motor skills is typically expected of a 3-year-old child?

Writing their own name
Stacking 10 blocks
Drawing a straight line
Using a pincer grasp to pick up small objects

Which of the following is a common physical sign of bulimia nervosa?

Persistant fever
Enlargement of the thyroid gland
Calluses or scars on the knuckles

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Rapid fluctuation in weight gain or loss

Which of the following symptoms are not found in anti-depressant discontinuation syndrome?

Imbalance
Flu-like symptoms
Hypersomnia
Hyperarousal

A 45-year-old man presents with episodes of feeling extremely happy and energetic for a few days, followed by periods of intense sadness and hopelessness. During the high periods, he engages in risky behaviors and has little need for sleep. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Major depressive disorder
Bipolar I disorder
Cyclothymic disorder
Bipolar II disorder

Patients with altered mental state should be considered for all the following potential causes except which of the following?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Uremia
Hypertriglyceridemia
LSD use
Ecstasy use

Patients who present with agitation, confusion, tachycardia and hypertension, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, twitching muscles, muscle rigidity, diaphoresis, and diarrhea should be worked up for which of the following conditions?

Myxedema coma
Depression
Serotonin syndrome
Hypothyroidism

A patient and family education program for patients with clinical depression should include which of the following explanations?

Improvement of symptoms can be expected within 48 hours of initiation of treatment
Resolution of symptoms should be expected within the first 2 weeks of treatment
Appropriate initial treatment prevents recurrence of symptoms
Symptom remission is the aim of treatment

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Patients who overdose on beta blockers should be treated with which of the following agents?

Sodium bicarbonate IV
Calcium chloride IV
Phenylephrine PO
Glucagon IV

An older patient with diabetes and multiple comorbidities presents for follow up after a recent hospitalization for an acute MI. He is not checking his blood glucose levels and has not been eating

regularly. The nurse practitioner's most important action is to:

Assess for depression
Refer to a nutritionist
Suggest a medication reminder
Reinforce diabetes education

An adult patient who was already taking Tramadol for back pain recently initiated Sertraline for new- onset depression. The patient returns, complaining of feeling unwell. Which of the following signs would make the nurse practitioner suspect that the patient has developed serotonin syndrome?

Hypotension
Muscle flaccidity

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Bradycardia
Fever

Your patient presents to the emergency department with periorbital and peripheral edema and has evidence of macroalbuminuria. Which state is described by this clinical presentation?

Acute kidney disease
Nephrotic syndrome
Acute tubular necrosis
Chronic kidney disease

A 25-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pyelonephritis
Vaginitis
Vaginitis
Cystitis

What is the standard treatment for women with uncomplicated urinary tract infection in a geographical area with less than 20% resistance?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Amoxicillin 875mg BID x 7 days
Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim 800/160mg BID x 3 days
Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID x 7 days
Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x 5 days

An older adult female presents with a 2-month history of incontinence. She specifically complains of an inability to make it to the bathroom without the loss of some urine most of the time, and denies incontinence due to laughing, coughing, or sneezing; she denies dysuria. Her medications include an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The initial plan of action for this patient would be: Obtaining a urinalysis for pyuria, hematuria, and glucosuria

Which portion of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism is inhibited by lisinopril?

Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin
Efferent arteriole dilation
Aldosterone secretion
Juxtaglomerular cell stimulation of renin

Your patient has presented with flank pain, CVA tenderness, frequency. Which diagnostic finding would be useful to differentiate between cystitis and pyelonephritis?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Presence of hematuria
UA
UA with presence of RBC casts
UC positive for proteus mirabilis

The hospitalized patient you are caring for has experienced a low blood pressure for a period of 2 hours before treatment with a fluid bolus. Which type acute renal dysfunction is being described in this scenario?

Chronic kidney disease
Intrarenal
Postrenal
Prerenal

What is the standard treatment for women with uncomplicated urinary tract infection in a geographical area with more than 20% resistance?

Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim 800/160mg BID x 3 days
Amoxicillin 875mg BID x 7 days
Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID x 7 days
Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x 5 days

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Inability to reach the bathroom before urinating is a feature consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

overflow incontinence
urge-type incontinence
stress incontinence
functional incontinence

A 24-year-old female reports urinary urgency with suprapubic tenderness relieved by bladder emptying.The patient has been evaluated by urology and urogynecology. Review of laboratory reports reveal negative urinalysis and cultures, negative results for sexually transmitted infections, and an unremarkable cystoscopy. Which of the following is an appropriate plan of care?Amitriptyline (Elavil) 25 mg oral once daily

Patients with an elevated creatinine after receiving contrast from an angiogram are exhibiting which classification of renal dysfunction?

Post renal
Intrarenal
Prerenal
Chronic kidney disease

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 25-year-old woman presents with a urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed by urinalysis. She has no allergies. What is the most appropriate first-line antibiotic treatment?

Nitrofurantoin
Ciprofloxacin
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Amoxicillin

Patients presenting to the emergency department with hematuria and RBC casts in their urine should be considered for which diagnosis?

Acute tubular necrosis
Pyelonephritis
Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic syndrome

The preferred treatment for early syphilis is:

ceftriaxone, 2 g IM once.
tetracycline, 500 mg q.i.d. for 14 days.
benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units IM once.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

aqueous penicillin G, 18-24 million units every 3-4 hours.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!Which of the following tests is the most effective in differentiating between solid and cystic breast lesions?

Xeromammographic
Screening mammography
Ultrasonography
Fine needle aspiration

30-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. She has no complications and is up-to-date on her vaccinations. What is the most appropriate vaccination to administer during this visit?

Influenza vaccine
Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine

The most common sign of cervical cancer is:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

postcoital bleeding.
itching in the vaginal area.
strong odor from vaginal discharge.
molluscum contagiosum

The nurse practitioner is assessing a 12-week pregnant female who presents to the clinic with continuing nausea and vomiting. The patient has not used any therapies for her symptoms. The patient usually vomits once in the morning and once at night. She is able to eat and drink throughout the day without

vomiting. The nurse practitioner orders:

Vitamin B6 25mg PO every 8 hours prn

The NP should educate mothers that the most effective form of birth control while breastfeeding is:

A.Morena

progestin-only contraceptive
lactation amenorrhea method
diaphragm

Unilateral spontaneous serous or serosanguineous discharge from a single duct of a breast is most often

caused by:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

ductal carcinoma in situ.
intraductal papilloma.
Paget's disease.
mucinous breast lesions.

An adult female who is homeless presents for an initial obstetric visit at 34 weeks of pregnancy. She is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. Which of the following complications will her newborn be most at risk for?

Hearing loss
Pneumonitis
Conjunctivitis
Meningitis

In treating a pregnant female with migraine headaches, which of the following drugs would be contraindicated?

Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Frovatriptan (Frova)
Ergotamine

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An adult male presents with general malaise and concerns about delayed ejaculation. His medication regimen consists of quinapril (Accupril) 20 mg daily; paroxetine (Paxil) 20 mg daily; loratadine (Claritin) 10 mg daily; hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 25 mg daily. The delayed ejaculation is most likely caused by

the:

paroxetine (Paxil).
quinapril (Accupril).
hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).
loratadine (Claritin).

A female patient was sexually assaulted within the past 120 hours and is concerned about unwanted

pregnancy. The correct prescription would be:

misprostol
medroxprogesterone, 5mg every 6 hours times 4
norgestrel
levonorgestrel 1.5 mg as a single

A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 complains of midcycle spotting.She has not missed any doses and uses no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?

Double dosing for 2 days

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Modifying use
Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35
Providing reassurance

A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and obesity.Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cushing's syndrome
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Hyperprolactinemia
Hypothyroidism

Intrauterine growth retardation is most likely caused by?

Smoking
No prenatal vitamins
Eating fish
Not taking folic acid daily

All of the following are usually associated with an abruptio placentae EXCEPT:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Visible or concealed hemorrhage
A tender, hypertonic uterus
Spotting during the first trimester
Fetal distress

vomiting. The nurse practitioner orders:

Vitamin B6 25mg PO every 8 hours prn

The most common sign of cervical cancer is:

molluscum contagiosum.
itching in the vaginal area.
postcoital bleeding.
strong odor from vaginal discharge.

The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Left upper lobe lingula
Left upper lobe apex
Left lower lobe
Right middle lobe

An adult male presents for re-evaluation of his asthma control. Last month, his asthma regimen was increased to a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and short acting beta agonist as needed. He states that he uses his rescue inhaler one time a week and has awoken with asthma symptoms once in the last month. His peak flow is in the green zone. The most appropriate plan for this patient is to: continue on current therapy

A 65-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased shortness of breath, wheezing, and a productive cough. On auscultation, you hear decreased breath sounds and wheezes. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Short-acting beta-agonists
Inhaled corticosteroids
Antibiotics
Oral corticosteroid

Which type of pneumothorax puts pressure on the mediastinum and shifts the heart and collapses the inferior vena cava?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Tension pneumothorax
Hemopneumothorax
Spontaneous pneumothorax
Simple pneumothorax

A 40-year-old man presents with chronic cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. He has a history of recent travel to a country with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. On physical examination, he has dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds in the right upper lobe. What is the most appropriate initial test to confirm the diagnosis?

Sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli
Chest X-ray
CT scan of the chest
Pulmonary function tests

A geriatric female presents with 48 hours of regional burning pain on the right side of the ribs. The nurse

practitioner starts drug treatment with:

Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Gabapentin (Neurontin)
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Naproxin (Naprosyn

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient with a family history of lung disease presents to urgent care with a diagnosis of shortness of breath. Which screening test is commonly used to evaluate the lung for nodules?

Low dose screening CT
CT with contrast
Thoracic ultrasound

D. CA-125

A patient with acute hyperventilation is at risk for which of the following acid base derangements?

Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis

Your patient who has undergone right upper lobectomy for stage II adenocarcinoma does not have any nodes positive for metastasis on pathology. Which of the following stages is ruled out by the absence of positive lymph nodes?

Stage III

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Stage I
Stage II
Stage IV

Which of the following assessments is most useful for evaluating respiratory function in a patient with suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Spirometry
Chest X-ray
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
Pulse oximetry

Which of the following scenarios suggest a high risk of metabolic acidosis?

New onset of type I diabetes mellitus with blood sugar of 800
Small bowel obstruction with continuous NG suction
Overdose of oxycontin
Acute panic attack with carpopedal spasms

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following agents would NOT be useful in reducing pulmonary edema in a patient with cardiogenic shock?

Phenylephrine
Furosemide PO or IV
Nitroglycerin IV or SL
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP

Which two lobes of the lung are most associated with aspiration pneumonia?

Right middle and right lower
Left lower and left upper
Right lower and right upper
Right upper and right middle

Appropriate treatment of costochondritis includes:

NSAIDs
Tylenol
albuterol
prednisone and physical therapy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 57-year-old man presents with a persistent, non-productive cough and weight loss. Chest X-ray reveals a mass in the lung apex. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

Bronchoscopy
PET scan
Sputum culture
Chest CT scan

A patient returns for a follow up 3 days after being diagnosed with pneumonia. The patient has a productive cough. A sputum culture and sensitivity is ordered. Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Neisseria meningitis
Moraxella catarrhalis

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium (Atrovent) and tiotropium (Spiriva) are used in COPD

primarily to:

Induce bronchodilation.
decrease airway inflammation.
expand the lung fields.
treat hypoxemia

Your patient is complaining of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Which medical procedure is commonly used to treat this condition?

Overdrive pacing via an epicardial lead
Radio frequency ablation of the left ventricular apex
Cryoablation of the transition zone of the left pulmonary vein inflow to the left atrium
Placement of biventricular pacing

A patient arrives to the urgent care clinic after several days of crushing chest pain rated 10 out of 10 on a zero to 10 scale with associated left arm numbness and shortness of breath. The pain has lessened over the last 24 hrs to a 4 out of 10. Given the extended duration from onset to presentation, what finding would be expected on the EKG?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

QT prolongation
Presence of a large Q wave in areas of infarction
P wave inversion
A normal EKG in areas of infarction

Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except?

Medication compliance
Daily exercise
Genetic predisposition
Smoking cessation

An 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset unilateral leg pain and pallor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Deep vein thrombosis
Cellulitis
Acute arterial occlusion
Peripheral artery disease

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A patient has been complaining of palpitations for the past week and presents to you at an urgent care clinic for evaluation. You perform a 12 lead EKG and identify atrial fibrillation with a hear rate of 122 beats per minute. What is your next order?

Apply a Holter monitor
Administer 150mg of amiodarone IV
Order a stat transthoracic (2D) echocardiogram and prepare the patient for trasnport to the closest

appropriate hospital for inpatient evaluation

Administer 5mg of warfarin

A "code blue" is called on your patient in the waiting room of your urgent care. When you arrive, cardiac monitoring is applied and their rhythm appears to be normal sinus rhythm with a rate of 80. On palpation over the carotid artery, you do not feel a pulse. What is the name of this cardiac rhythm?

Idioventricular rhythm
Junctional Tachycardia
Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
Wandering Atrial Pacemaker (WAP

A patient presenting with symptoms of hypotension, narrowed pulse pressures, muffled heart tones, and jugular venous distention is most likely experiencing which of the following life-threatening conditions?

Pericarditis

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Cardiac contusion
Pericardial tamponade
Tension pneumothorax

Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?

dobutamine
epinephrine
phenylephrine
dopamine

A 65 year old alcoholic patient presents with a new onset of persistent palpitations and anxiety for the past 3 days. Your monitor is applied and an irregularly irregular rhythm is noted. Which of the following interventions should be performed first in your treatment?

Ordering a BNP and Vitamin D level
Prescribing amiodarone 150mg IV bolus
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
Palpating pulses bilaterally to identify unilateral pulse deficit

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with a new-onset headache and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 200/110 mmHg. What is the most appropriate management?

Start insulin therapy
Refer to the emergency department
Advise dietary changes
Prescribe antihypertensive medication and follow up in a week

All the following are symptoms of hypocalcemia except:

Paresthesia in fingers and toes
Visual field deficits
Abdominal pain
Tetany

A 48-year-old female presents with a history of hypothyroidism controlled with levothyroxine (Synthroid). She reports that she has been taking excessive amounts of the drug over the past year, to control her weight. This behavior can cause or aggravate which of the following conditions?

Osteoporosis
Bradycardia
Thyroid malignancy
Migraine headaches

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Pheochromocytoma is best diagnosed by which of the following tests:

Blood pressure values and adrenal CT/MRI
Plasma metanephrines with blood pressure values
24-hour urine for catecholamines/metanephrines and plasma metanephrines
Adrenal CT/MRI

An adult female who recently returned for a recheck appointment. The only remarkable laboratory result is for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), at 0.3 microunits/mL (normal = 0.4-6 microunits/mL).The patient reports that her neck hurts; examination reveals thyroid tenderness. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse practitioner order now?Triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (FT4)

A patient has a 2 cm pituitary adenoma on MRI. Deficiency of one of the pituitary hormones can cause immediate hemodynamic instability and has a risk of death. Which is the most critical hormone deficiency to rule out?

Prolactin

B. TSH

C. ACTH

D. FSH/LH

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following is true of HHS?

Rapid onset of <24 hours
Slower onset and typically found in elderly population
Pts present with less severe hyperglycemia compared to DKA
Pts typically have an underlying diagnosis of Type 1 DM

The most common side effect of the oral ribavirin used in the treatment of hepatitis C is:

hemolytic anemia.
hypothyroidism.
weight gain.
depression

A 29-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain, he has a history of alcohol abuse, and recurrent pancreatitis. Patients Lipase is elevated, and he has nausea and vomiting as well. Abdominal CT shows inflammatory changes around the pancreas. What is the most important intervention to consider in the acute phase?Admit to the hospital for fluid resuscitation to avoid hypovolemic state, and reduce risk of developing further complications

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 38-year-old male presents to the ER with complaints of abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhea, and has a positive occult blood. A stool culture is done which does not show any organism growth. His CRP and fecal calprotectin are elevated, and a colonoscopy is performed with biopsy which shows changes consistent with Crohn's disease, which are mild. What of the following represent the first line of treatment for this illness?5-ASA, antibiotics, corticosteroids

A 64-year-old female with a past medical history significant for hepatitis C and Cirrhosis presents to your office with abdominal pain and distention. Exam reveals tense ascites. Which is indicated for treatment?

Transfer to the hospital for large Volume paracentesis
Labetalol 200mg PO BID
Furosemide 40mg PO BID
Midodrine 10mg PO TID

A 42-year-old female presents with large watery frequent stools. She also reports abdominal pain and cramping, bloating and gas. The likely anatomical source of her diarrhea is where?

Small intestine
Stomach
Large intestine (colon)
Esophagus

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 39-year-old female is being seen by your service for diarrhea. Patient reports 3-4 loose stools a day.She also reports mild cramping. The patients stool culture was negative, her fecal occult and ESR were elevated. Which lab would be important to also test if you are suspecting IBD?

A. CBC, CMP

B. CRP

D-Dimer
Fecal calprotectin

An older adult has a follow-up fasting lipid panel 6 months after making therapeutic lifestyle changes.LDL=205mg/dL (Normal=<100mg/dL), HDL=44mg/dL, and triglycerides=180mg/dL (Normal-<150mg/dL).The patient is placed on statin therapy. Two months later, the patient presents for follow-up and complains of body aches. In addition to creatine phosphokinase (CPK), which of the following tests should the nurse practitioner order?Liver transaminase (AST and ALT) levels

practitioner diagnoses the patient with:

Viral rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis
Allergic sinusitis
Vasomotor rhinitis

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

The patient describes a sudden flashing like lightning in their left eye with a subsequent grayish coloration noted over the lateral half of their view. What diagnosis best describes these symptoms?

Acute angle closure glaucoma
Detached retina
Scotoma
Hyphema

organism in bacterial sialadenitis is:

Staphylococcus aureus
Moraxella catarrhalis
Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus

Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently associated with acute bacterial rhino- sinusitis?

Staphylococcus aureus and Methicillin Resistant Staph aureus

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Staphylococcus aureus and Mycoplasma pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

A patient with chronic liver disease presents to Urgent Care after developing frequent, severe epistaxis, petechia, and hematuria. Which of the following conditions have they likely developed?

Neutropenia
Thrombocytosis
Factor V deficiency
Thrombocytopenia

Which of the following is appropriate long-term treatment for B12 deficiency in a patient with a history of gastric bypass?

Inhaled B12
Parenteral vitamin B6
Oral vitamin B12
Parenteral B12

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being treated with ferrous sulfate.

Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of anemia within:

2 weeks.
4 weeks.
3 months.
8 months.

A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for developing which of the following conditions?

Bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia
B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Liver disease

A 73 y.o. M presents to the ED with complaints of large output hematemesis since early this morning. He is a endorses chronic alcohol use and his PMH is positive for peptic ulcer. Which of the following symptoms indicate a potentially severe GI bleed and likely need for immediate PRBC transfusion?

Fatigue and SOB
Hypertension, fatigue, and SOB
Headaches, SOB, and vertigo

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Orthostatic dizziness, confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy extremities

What is the first-line treatment for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Corticosteroids
Ibuprofen (Advil)

Your patient presents with 2-month progressive weakness in legs, loss of coordination, and loss of bladder tone. Which of the following diseases should be investigated?

Multiple sclerosis
Embolic stroke
Descending Guillain-Barre
Multiple myeloma

Long-term immunoglobulin that is carried from generation to generation is likely which type of immunoglobulin?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Patients with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis are more likely to have the presence of which tissue in greater quantities?

Lymphatic tissue
Larger beefier tongues
Adipose tissue
Thymic tissue

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to identify fungal infections of the skin?

Skin biopsy
Wood's lamp examination
Tzanck smear
Patch test

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which procedure is considered the most effective technique to guarantee negative margins for dermatologic lesions such as basal cell carcinoma and melanoma?

Elliptical excision
Shave biopsy
Punch biopsy
Mohs procedure

A 21-year-old athlete presents with painful, erythematous, non-pustular firm cysts on both forearms, which are not the result of an injury. The patient is afebrile. Medication includes cephalexin (Keflex), 500 mg q.i.d. Two days later, the patient returns with fluctuant, pustular, larger lesions that are more

painful. The nurse practitioner should perform wound:

culture and sensitivity and switch the patient to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim

An adult photography developer presents with two small vesicles on his right middle finger, proximal to the nail bed. He says he wears gloves when he works with photography chemicals. He admits to chewing his fingers, and notes that this is his fourth episode. Previous cultures have been negative. The MOST

likely diagnosis is:

Atopic dermatitis
Habit tic
Herpetic whitlow
mpetigo

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

During the preadmission history and physical, you examine your patient and find a new multicolored mole measuring 9mm with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Simple Nevus
Cutaneous Horn
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma

A 28-year-old female requests contraceptive pills. The nurse practitioner knows that the patient is not a

candidate for estrogen-containing contraceptive if she:

Has a history of migraine headache with aura
Used to smoke ½ a pack of cigarettes per day
Drinks alcohol more than 3 days per week
Has a history of fibrocystic breast disease

Which of the following are not associated with alcohol abuse?

Macrocytic anemia
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Microcytic anemia

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Thiamine deficiency

Which of the following drug classes are used to prevent migraine headaches?

Opioids
Beta-blockers
Alpha-adrenergic blockers
Nitrates

Which of the following tools is most easily administered in the practice setting for assessing cognitive decline?

A. MMSE

CAGE questionnaire
Clock drawing (mini cog)
Beck depression inventory

A 5-year-old girl presents with fever, rash, hacking cough, and swollen, tender lymph nodes. The rash started on her face and has spread to the rest of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Scarlet fever
Fifth disease
Chickenpox
Measles

An adult female was treated for postpartum depression with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) by another healthcare provider. The patient reports continuing lethargy and depression. Before

the dose of SSRIs is increased, it is most important to obtain:

A basic metabolic profile
The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level
A complete blood count (CBC)
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR

A young male presents with dysuria. Dipstick urinalysis is positive for WBCs, shows a pH of 7.0, a specific

gravity of 1.015, and is otherwise negative. The nurse practitioner should:

Order a voiding cystourethrogram and an ultrasound of the kidneys
Initiate trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) pending culture results
Start pyridoxine to decrease symptoms pending culture results
Obtain a urine sample for a nucleic acid test (NAT) for chlamydia

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 22-year-old has ASCAS on Pap smear and negative for HPV. The next step is:

Colposcopy
Repeat Pap in 6 months
No follow up is needed.
Repeat HPV in 3 months

Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Levofloxacin

Which of the following oxygen delivery devices will provide 95% or more to the adult patient with normal respirations?

High flow nasal cannula at 50 LPM blender flow with a 100% oxygen setting
Venturi mask at 10 LPM with a 40% spacer
Nonrebreather mask at 5 LPM

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Nasal cannula at 4 LPM

A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. On physical examination, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pulmonary embolism
Asthma exacerbation
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax

Which two lobes of the lung are most associated with aspiration pneumonia?

Right middle and right lower
Left lower and left upper
Right lower and right upper
Right upper and right middle

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient with a history of COPD is being evaluated in urgent care with respiratory distress. Which of the following interventions would NOT cause the patient to potentially develop worsening of respiratory acidosis?

Initiation of BiPAP
Initiation of 15LPM oxygen via nonrebreather mask
Administration of Xanax 0.5mg PO
Initiation of CPAP with 4LPM oxygen bled in for hypoxia

Which of the following findings is typically a sign of acute appendicitis?

Positive Prehn's sign
A negative psoas sign
Positive Murphy's sign
A positive Rovsing's sign

A 49-year-old male presents to your service with symptoms of fever 102.3, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Imagining reveals a biliary obstruction. Which diagnosis is most likely for this patient?

Choledocholithiasis
Cholangitis
Acute cholecystitis
Cholangiocarcinoma

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A patient presents with blood present in the anterior portion of their eye covering the lower half of their iris. With which of the following diagnoses is this most consistent?

Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Globe rupture
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Hyphema

What is the most likely diagnosis for an elderly patient with GI cancer who presents with skin pallor, conjunctival pallor, palpitations, and weakness?

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Peptic ulcer disease
Iron deficiency anemia
Gastroesophageal reflux disease

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Erysipelas typically presents on the face with:

Vesicles on an erythematous base following a dermatome
Painful progressive arrythmia and edema
A papular erythematous malar rash
Scattered ruborous macules across the cheeks

Which of the following does not represent populations at risk for skin cancer?

Male sex
Dark skin with minimal freckles
Light skin that freckles easily
Caucasian

Your patient is being educated about the management of the new diagnosis of melanoma. Which of the following techniques is the most likely approach to be used in removal of the melanoma?

Cryotherapy
Shave biopsy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Punch biopsy
Local wide excision

The patient undergoing a cardiac arrest after a recent fracture should be considered for which of the following potential causes of pulseless electrical activity?

Hyponatremia
Hyperglycemia
Fat embolism
Pericarditis

The 16-year-old mother of a 2-month-old presents the infant, reporting that the child is very irritable and does not feed well. During physical examination, the child's head drops back and the child exhibits sudden flexing of the extremities. As the flexing stops, the child cries uncontrollably. Funduscopic examination reveals retinal hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered?

PET scan

B. MRI

CT scan
Skull X-rays

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient presents to the emergency department with periorbital and peripheral edema and has evidence of macroalbuminuria. Which state is described by this clinical presentation?

Acute kidney disease
Chronic kidney disease
Nephrotic syndrome
Acute tubular necrosis

Intrarenal
Prerenal
Chronic kidney disease
Postrenal

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 25-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency, and urgency. She reports chronic pelvic pain that worsens as the bladder fills and improves after voiding. Urinalysis is unremarkable with no evidence of infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Urethritis
Acute cystitis
Interstitial cystitis
Pyelonephritis

A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman, comes in for a routine check-up. During the breast exam, the provider finds an area of thickening in her right breast, along with some dimpling of the skin. The patient mentions she hasn't noticed any lumps but has felt some discomfort in that area for a few weeks. She has no family history of breast cancer. What is the most appropriate course of action?Refer her for a diagnostic mammogram and possibly a biopsy

Treatment for patients with poor compliance should include which of the following mechanisms?

High PEEP and low tidal volume
High PEEP and high tidal volume
Low PEEP and low tidal volume
Low PEEP and high tidal volume

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Stage III
Stage I
Stage II
Stage IV

The following are side effects of albuterol use except which of the following?

Diarrhea
Tachycardia
Decreased GI motility
Tremors after prolonged nebulized administration

What is the chamber which directly pumps blood into the ascending aorta?

Left Atrium
Left Ventricle
Right Atrium
Right Ventricle

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing's Syndrome?

Long term excessive glucocorticoid use
Ectopic ACTH secretion
ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma
Adrenal adenoma

A 60-year-old woman presents for a routine check-up. She has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. She is currently on lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin. She has no new complaints. On examination, her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, heart rate is 72 beats per minute, and BMI is 32 kg/m². Recent laboratory tests reveal HbA1c of 7.5%, LDL cholesterol of 110 mg/dL, and creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate management plan to optimize her care?

Increase the dose of metformin
Increase the dose of lisinopril
Increase the dose of atorvastatin
Recommend lifestyle modifications including diet and exercise

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 43-year-old male with past medical history significant for GERD, smoking, and obesity presents to your clinic for worsening GERD symptoms, he has been taking Protonix 40mg daily with no improvement. He had an EGD done with biopsy. Which findings would diagnose the patient with Barret's esophagus?

Intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells
Erosion of esophagus, and inflammatory findings on biopsy
Smooth muscularis mucosae
Intestinal dysplasia with goblet cells

An adult male presents with a 1-week history of headache and nasal congestion; assessment reveals T=103 degrees F (39.4 degrees C), periorbital swelling, and proptosis. Which is the most appropriate action?

Obtain an X-ray of the sinuses
Prescribe beciomethasone (Beconase)
Prescribe oral broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
Refer for hospital admission

A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain. Cardiac work-up is negative but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the following indices would indicate a potential iron deficiency anemia?

A. MCV 72, MCHC 38

B. MCV 95, MCHC 34

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

C. MCV 67, MCHC 29

D. MCV 112, MCHC 40

Observation until patient becomes symptomatic
Prophylactic Ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO three times weekly
Additional work-up/prep for allogenic stem cell transplant consideration
Neupogen 5mg/kg/day SQ

A 35-year-old woman presents with a new, darkly pigmented lesion on her back that she noticed a few months ago. The lesion is asymmetrical, has irregular borders, and varies in color. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Reassure the patient and advise regular monitoring
Perform a punch biopsy
Perform a shave biopsy
Perform an excisional biopsy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

What is the etiology of actinic keratosis?

Group B Strep infection in the skin
Human Papilloma Virus infection in the skin
Chronic UV-B exposure to the skin
Chronic UV-A exposure to the skin

our patient presents with a red, well-differentiated, raised circular lesion on their nose which has a bloody-appearing central appearance. Which type of lesion does this likely represent?

Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Actinic keratosis
Cherry hemangioma

Patients with uncontrolled hypertension should be started on antihypertensive agents in addition to diet and exercise. Which medication should not be considered for a hospitalized hypertensive patient with acute kidney injury with a creatinine of 3.1?

Amlodipine
Isosorbide mononitrate
Hydralazine

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Lisinopril

Which nationality is four times as likely as Caucasians to be diagnosed with kidney disease?

African Americans
Native Alaskans
Pacific Islanders
Eastern Europeans

atients who present with SAIDH should be treated with which of the following regimens?

Fluid promotion and general diet
IV vasopressin
Free water restriction
Sodium restriction

A 5-year-old child presents with facial puffiness, decreased urine output, and dark-colored urine. The parents report that the child had a sore throat about two weeks ago. Which condition is most likely?

Hydronephrosis

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Nephrotic syndrome
Urinary tract infection
Acute glomerularnephritis

Which of the following drug classes is associated with anticholinergic side effects?

Beta blockers
Parasympathomimetic agents
Tricyclic antidepressants
Benzodiazepines

Which of the following is most likely to cause intrauterine growth retardation?

Smoking
Sedentary lifestyle
Taking fish oil supplements
No prenatal vitamins

What does forced vital capacity (FVC) represent in pulmonary function testing?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after forced exhalation
Maximum volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after maximum inspiration.
Total volume of air exhaled during the first second of forced expiration.
The maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation.

Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?

CT PE rule-out protocol
CT angiography of the chest
Plain film chest X-ray (CXR)
Transesophageal Echocardiogram

An adult patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus returns at the nurse practitioner's request to discuss medication management. Current medications include metformin (Glucophage), 1000 mg twice daily, sitagliptin (Januvia), 10 mg daily, and insulin detemir (Levemir), 60 U daily. Lab values are: A1c = 10.4% [normal = less than 7.0%], fasting blood glucose = 180-190 mg/dL range [normal = less than 99 mg/dL].Which of the following regimens should the nurse practitioner recommend?

Switching to glargine (Lantus)
Basal and rapid-acting insulin
Rapid-acting insulin only, continuing oral medications

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Basal insulin only, continuing oral medications

practitioner suspects:

Ulcerative colitis
NSAID-induced hepatitis
Diverticulitis
Gastric ulceration

The patient describes a sudden flashing like lightning in their left eye with a subsequent grayish coloration noted over the lateral half of their view. What diagnosis best describes these symptoms?

Detached retina
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Hyphema
Scotoma

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient presents to the urgent care clinic with a swollen exudative pharynx, profound fatigue, and a very tender left upper quadrant abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Epstein Barr virus (EBV)

Pancreatitis

Strep pharyngitis

Tonsillitis

A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which causative agent would be suspected?

Haemophilus influenzae
Epstein-Barr virus
Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
Adenovirus

The treatment of Shigellosis is:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Doryx
Cipro
Flagyl
Erythromycin

A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. She has no hearing loss or tinnitus. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Refer for MRI of the brain
Prescribe meclizine
Recommend bed rest
Start oral corticosteroids

The 16-year-old mother presents 1-month-old reporting that the child is very irritable and does not feed well. Physical examination demonstrates the child's head drops back and the child exhibits sudden flexing of the extremities. As the flexing stops, the child cries uncontrollably. Funduscopic examination reveals retinal hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered?

CT scan
Skull X-rays
PET scan

D. MRI

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following drug classes is associated with anticholinergic side effects?

Benzodiazepines
Tricyclic antidepressants
Parasympathomimetic agents
Beta blockers

The 32-year-old female patient newly diagnosed with depression is likely to be started on which of the following agents with the fewest risks of extrapyramidal symptoms?

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Tricyclic antidepressants

Atypical antipsychotics

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A young male presents with dysuria. Dipstick urinalysis is positive for WBCs, shows a pH of 7.0, a specific

gravity of 1.015, and is otherwise negative. The nurse practitioner should:

Initiate trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) pending culture results
Obtain a urine sample for a nucleic acid test (NAT) for chlamydia
Start pyridoxine to decrease symptoms pending culture results
Order a voiding cystourethrogram and an ultrasound of the kidneys

A 50-year-old man presents for a routine check-up and expresses concerns about prostate health. What is the most appropriate screening recommendation for prostate cancer?

No screening until symptoms appears
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test every year starting at age 50
Digital rectal examination (DRE) every year
PSA test every 5 years starting at age 40

All of the following are usually associated with an abruptio placentae EXCEPT:

Visible or concealed hemorrhage
A tender, hypertonic uterus
Spotting during the first trimester
Fetal distress

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

The NP should educate mothers that the most effective form of birth control while breastfeeding is:

lactation amenorrhea method

progestin-only contraceptive

diaphragm

Morena

Patients with bullous lung disease are at risk of developing all the following except which barotrauma- related complication?

Hemothorax
Bronchopleural fistula
Tension pneumothorax
Pneumomediastinum

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A patient is evaluated in the urgent care for complications of Type 2 diabetes due to an episode of

recent life stressors. All the following are consistent with HHS except:

Markedly positive serum ketones
Urine osmolality 380 mOsm/mL
Arterial pH 7.6
BS= 850 mg/dL

A 42-year-old female presents with large watery frequent stools. She also reports abdominal pain and cramping, bloating and gas. The likely anatomical source of her diarrhea is where?

Stomach

Large intestine (colon)

Small intestine

Esophagus

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

medication regimen, the patient still complains of abdominal discomfort and reports dark stools. The

practitioner suspects:

Diverticulitis
Ulcerative colitis
NSAID-induced hepatitis
Gastric ulceration

The best medication for a patient who presents with irritable bowel syndrome with cramping is:

aluminum/magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol).
dicyclomine (Bentyl).
lactulose (Kristalose).

Intestinal dysplasia with goblet cells

Erosion of esophagus, and inflammatory findings on biopsy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Smooth muscularis mucosae

Intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells

A 42-year-old male with past medical history significant for right chronic right shoulder pain, CAD, ETOH abuse, and hypertension presents with several episodes of hematemesis. He reports he only takes Ibuprofen 200mg 3 times daily. He reports he has been on this regimen for 6 months now due to his pain. What medical history would be significant for risk factors of PUD in this patient?

Hypertension
Alcohol abuse
Chronic pain with use of NSAIDs
Coronary artery disease

Your patient presents with unilateral eye pain after a workplace exposure to a caustic substance. Which of the following techniques is useful to assist in removal of the agent?

Slit lap evaluation
Topical anesthesia with lidocaine gel
Flushing with a Morgan lens
Fluorescein staining

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Evidence based health screening is utilized with an understanding of the limits of interpreting the results. In this context, the term sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to:

Detect an abnormal condition when it exists
Detect the prevalence of a given condition
Provide reproducible results
Identify the specific condition

A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for developing which of the following conditions?

Iron deficiency anemia

Bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia

B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia

Liver disease

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 6-year-old child presents with a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border.What is the most likely diagnosis?

Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot
Patent ductus arteriosus
Ventricular septal defect

A female who is 1 year post menopause presents with fatigue and a 2-week history of moderate vaginal bleeding. Her complete blood count (CBC) reveals low Hgb and Hct. The most appropriate diagnostic

procedure to be performed is a/an:

Progesterone challenge

Cervical biopsy

Endometrial biopsy

Colposcopy

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient has recently traveled to the developing world for a medical service trip and has returned with symptoms of night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Which of the following interventions represent your priority in their care?

Isolating from others and initiating negative pressure isolation
Asking a thorough history of the events of the last week
Listening to the lungs and collecting a sputum sample
Discussing the patient's immunization history and health prior to the trip

Which of the following reflects a reversible cause of pulmonary disease?

Smoking

Chewing tobacco

Eating food at least thirty minutes before bed

Inhaled corticosteroid use

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Doxycycline

Azithromycin

Levofloxacin

A geriatric patient with a history of gout presents with an acute attack. He had stopped taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) for a few months but resumed taking it a few days ago when the pain returned.

He says that the pain is getting worse. The nurse practitioner should:

Continue allopurinol and encourage dietary changes to avoid foods high in purines
Start another hypouricemic agent such as probenecid and titrate allopurinol to a lower dose
Start the patient on a short-term steroid
Continue allopurinol and order a serum uric acid test to confirm gout as the diagnosis

our patient who has undergone right upper lobectomy for stage II adenocarcinoma does not have any nodes positive for metastasis on pathology. Which of the following stages is ruled out by the absence of positive lymph nodes?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Stage III
Stage I
Stage II
Stage IV

Which of the following medications is not considered part of optimal medical therapy for a 54-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) with an EF of 30%, known coronary artery disease, and normal renal function?

Carvedilol (Coreg)

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Aspirin

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

An otherwise healthy patient reports episodes of palpitations lasting less than 5 minutes and occurring 3-5 times daily. The patient describes a substernal flip-flop sensation with a sudden rapid heart rate,

ending with a forceful beat. Holter monitoring would most likely document:

Sinus tachycardia

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Premature ventricular contraction (extrasystole)
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Atrial flutter

An adult patient presents with tachycardia and nervousness. The patient is currently taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), 75 mcg daily. The nurse practitioner orders a thyroid-stimulating hormone

(TSH) and anticipates having to:

lower the dose to 50 mcg daily.

continue the same daily dose.

raise the dose to 100 mcg daily.

add atenolol, 50 mg daily.

A patient is having increased thirst and urination. You have ruled out diabetes mellitus. After a compete history and physical you suspect diabetes insipidus. Your initial lab tests should include?

Plasma sodium, 24-hour urine osmolality and volume
Recording Intake and output
Plasma sodium and renal US

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Renal US and 24-hour urine for volume

A 45-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Endoscopy reveals villous atrophy of the small intestine. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Antibiotics
Lactose-free diet
Gluten-free diet
High-fiber diet

A 34-year-old male with past medical history of alcohol abuse, cirrhosis, hypertension, and CAD presents with hematemesis. Patient does not report and symptoms or prior vomiting prior to the episode of hematemesis. What would be a likely cause of patients upper GI bleed?

Ulcer bleed
Peptic ulcer bleed
Mallory-Weiss tear
Variceal bleed

A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which causative agent would be suspected?

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
Adenovirus
Epstein-Barr virus
Haemophilus influenzae

Hydroxyurea
Blood transfusion
Hospitalization for intravenous fluids and opioids
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

An 86-year-old patient is experiencing radiculopathy-associated lower back pain that has not improved over the past 4 weeks. The medical history includes a lumbar discectomy. The best type of imaging study

for evaluating this patient would be a/an:

A. MRI

nuclear bone scan.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

myelography.

spinal X-ray.

Which of the following is an accurate description of amaurosis fugax?

The patient describes several episodes of intermittent loss of vision in the right eye
The patient has a grayish field of view and a flash of light preceding this
The patient can see out of both eyes, but the left field of both eyes is absent
The patient just received prescription glasses for reading

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
Serotonin syndrome (SS)
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

The use of GABA-agonizing drugs is likely going to have which effect on seizure threshold?

None of the above

Increase

Decrease

No change

A pediatric male is present with his mother, who states that he is extremely restless at night and constantly scratches his anal area. Which diagnostic procedure would confirm a diagnosis of pinworm infestation?

Blood tests for anemia and eosinophilia

The patch test

Examination of bed linens

Examination of transparent tape sample from perianal skin

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Your patient presents with a blowing systolic murmur rated 3/6 that is heard best over the left chest at the 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular space, radiating to the left axilla. This likely represents which cardiac finding?

Mitral Stenosis

Mitral Regurgitation

Aortic Regurgitation

Aortic Stenosis

What is the key long-term benefit of using carvedilol for patients with coronary artery disease and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?

Reduction in cardiac output

Increase in libido

Potential increase in ejection fraction

Baseline reduction of blood pressure

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A 60-year-old man presents with recurrent kidney stones, abdominal pain, and bone pain. Laboratory results show elevated serum calcium and low phosphate levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypercalcemia of malignancy
Osteoporosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Hypoparathyroidism

Your patient has been diagnosed with a detached retina. What treatment is least likely to be curative?

Lens replacement
Vitrectomy and instillation of air bubble
Scleral buckle
Pneumatic retinoplexy

Which of the following is characteristic of Lewy body dementia?

Parkinsonian features

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Depression
Diplopia
Echolalia

A 5-year-old child presents with frequent episodes of otitis media. His parents are concerned about his hearing and speech development. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Referral to an audiologist for a hearing evaluation
Prescribing long-term antibiotics
Immediate referral for tympanostomy tube placement
Monitoring and reassessing in 3 months

The clinical presentation of placenta previa that develops during the third trimester includes:

occult bleeding with abdominal or back pain.
sudden onset of painless and profuse bleeding.
painless occult bleeding that becomes visible upon onset of labor.
intermittent dark-red spotting.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A grade III/VI, low-pitched, diastolic, rumbling murmur heard at the apex, and best heard in the left lateral decubitus position, is most indicative of which of the following types of valve problem?

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis

Coronary artery disease
Hypertension
Chronic pain with use of NSAIDs
Alcohol abuse

A 39-year-old female is being seen by your service for diarrhea. Patient reports 3-4 loose stools a day.She also reports mild cramping. Which labs would be helpful in further workup of a diagnosis?

ESR, fecal occult, Stool culture

B. CBC, CMP

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Fecal calprotectin
D-Dimer

You are admitting an otherwise healthy 67-year-old female patient with a leading diagnosis of hypotension. She has a history of palmar dyshidrotic eczema who has been taking mometasone ointment for over a month. She reports stopping this medication a few days prior to admission. With this information, what is the likely diagnosis of her admission?

Dehydration
Suppression of the adrenal glands causing Cushing syndrome
Acute heart failure
Suppression of the HPA axis causing an Addisonian crisis

Which of the following are not associated with alcohol abuse?

Thiamine deficiency

Microcytic anemia

Macrocytic anemia

Vitamin B12 deficiency

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

A pregnant woman with known HIV infection can reduce the risk of perinatal transmission through zidovudine (Retrovir) therapy. Based on current research, optimal therapy is to start daily dosing:

after 14 weeks of gestation.
if maternal viral loads are greater than 10,000.
post amniocentesis.
if premature rupture of membranes occurs.

An adult smoker who is 10 weeks pregnant presents with blood-tinged greenish sputum. She reports a 1-week history of sore throat and cough. Temperature = 100 degrees F (37.8 degrees C), she is positive for submandibular lymphadenopathy, her throat is red, and a few scattered crackles are present. She

has a history of penicillin allergy. The nurse practitioner should order:

Amoxicillin-potassium clavulanate (Augmentin)
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
Doxycycline (Doryx)
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A 41-year-old female enters the clinic with concerns of a lump in her breast. On examination, the nurse practitioner finds a palpable mass in the left outer quadrant that is mobile. A mammogram reveals a

hypoechoic mass. The next step the nurse practitioner would take is to order a:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

surgical consult.
stereotactic breast biopsy.
needle aspiration for cytology.
left breast ultrasound.

A patient with a solitary nodule in the right upper lobe with no brain or body lesions and a PET scan showing no evidence of other lesions in the body would be ruled out of which of the following stages of lung cancer?

Stage IV
Stage III
Stage II
Stage I

A patient is being followed for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He also has a diagnosis of polycythemia vera and has regular phlebotomies for management. Which of the following statements about this patient is correct?

He should avoid dietary iron supplements

He should increase dietary iron supplements

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

The phlebotomies will increase his blood pressure

The phlebotomies will improve his glycosylated hemoglobin levels

Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient’s care?

Ordering a Holter monitor for 7 days post-discharge

Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%

Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 45%

Ordering aspirin and clopidogrel for a minimum of 3 months at discharge

The use of sublingual nitrates for patients with chest pain is relatively or absolutely contraindicated in all

the following scenarios except:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Profound hypotension
Concomitant use with phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Use during right coronary artery territory STEMI
Uncontrolled hypertension

Cluster headache

Chalazion

Digoxin toxicity

Acute angle glaucoma

Le Fort II

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Le Fort III

Le Fort I

Le Fort IV

The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is:

Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Doxycycline (Vibrimycin)
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

Unilateral spontaneous serous or serosanguineous discharge from a single duct of a breast is most often

caused by:

ductal carcinoma in situ.
mucinous breast lesions.
intraductal papilloma.
Paget's disease.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Recommendation for lipid check in adolescent with type 1 DM?

10 years
1 year
5 years
2 years

An example of secondary prevention for a diagnosis of coronary artery disease includes which of the following?

Coronary artery bypass grafting
Controlling hypertension
LDL decreasing from 120 to 98 with healthy diet
Practicing yoga and meditation to reduce stress

Your 53 year-old female hospitalized patient is experiencing shortness of breath and has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension. Which ventricle is directly experiencing increased afterload from this disease state?

Right Ventricle

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Both Right and Left Ventricles
Left Ventricle
Neither Left or Right Ventricles

A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Oral contraceptives
Metformin
Spironolactone
Clomiphene

An adult patient presents with left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness and a history of diverticular disease. The patient denies any fever or vomiting, and the last episode was over 10 years ago.

Suspecting this is a mild and uncomplicated episode the best treatment plan is:

CT scan
increase whole grain and water intake
ciprofloxacin
CBC and metabolic panel

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An elderly female is being treated with gabapentin (Neurontin) for neuropathic pain. Six months ago, she was started on a dose of 600 mg at HS. She states that she feels much better now, but that she becomes very dizzy when she gets up. Which of the following would be the best approach now?

Changing to valproic acid (Depakene), 250 mg at HS
Decreasing gabapentin (Neurontin) to 300 mg at HS
Referral to a pain management specialist
Changing to amitriptyline (Elavil) 50 mg at HS

A 3-year-old child presents with a swollen, red, and tender knee. The child has a fever and refuses to bear weight on the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Septic arthritis
Osteomyelitis
Reactive arthritis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A mother brings her 8-week-old to the clinic who has been inconsolably crying for the last 4 days. The physical exam shows normal findings. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse practitioner order next?

A. MRI

B. CMP

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Blood cultures
Urinalysis

Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he is having difficulty walking great distances due to the pain in his calves. The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is which of the following exams?

Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Exercise stress test

A 75-year-old patient has just been discharged to a nursing facility following hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic heart failure. The patient’s condition is classified as stage C, which involves known structural heart disease with previous or present symptoms of failure. If the patient is adherent to current clinical guidelines, the nurse practitioner who is visiting can expect treatment to include which of the following medications?

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), lisinopril (Zestril), amlodipine (Norvasc)

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), metoprolol (Lopressor), losartan (Cozaar)

Furosemide (Lasix), lisinopril (Zestril), carvedilol (Coreg)

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Furosemide (Lasix), prazosin (Minipress), propranolol (Inderal)

Chalazion
Cluster headache
Acute angle glaucoma
Digoxin toxicity

Your patient has been noticing cracking and peeling on their hands and having some vesicular rash component. Which of the following is not likely the diagnosis?

Pompholyx

Palmoplantar eczema

Psoriasis

Dyshidrotic eczema

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

What is the most likely diagnosis for an elderly patient with GI cancer who presents with skin pallor, conjunctival pallor, palpitations, and weakness?

Iron deficiency anemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Peptic ulcer disease

Which of the following is an accurate description of amaurosis fugax?

The patient can see out of both eyes, but the left field of both eyes is absent
The patient has a grayish field of view and a flash of light preceding this
The patient just received prescription glasses for reading
The patient describes several episodes of intermittent loss of vision in the right eye

A 78-year-old male presents with a complaint of paroxysmal dizziness associated with nausea, and a feeling that he is going to “pass out”. Neurological examination and brain imaging studies are negative.

EKG is within normal limits. The next diagnostic procedure should be:

24-hour blood pressure monitoring

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

An exercise stress test

Cardiac event monitor

An arteriogram

A pregnant woman with known HIV infection can reduce the risk of perinatal transmission through zidovudine (Retrovir) therapy. Based on current research, optimal therapy is to start daily dosing:

after 14 weeks of gestation.
if premature rupture of membranes occurs.
if maternal viral loads are greater than 10,000.
post amniocentesis.

Your patient is suspected to have colon cancer. Which labs/marker are important to be performed on this patient?

BRCA 1 and 2

B. CEA

C. CA-125

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

D. AFP

Your 62-year-old patient with diabetes and COPD has been diagnosed with acute angle glaucoma after presenting to the clinic with complaints of acute unilateral eye pain with decreased unilateral visual acuity and a hazy cornea. Which of the following topical medications should be avoided?

timolol
latanoprost
glucocorticoid
acetazolamide

Your patient has been noticing cracking and peeling on their hands and having some vesicular rash component. Which of the following is not likely the diagnosis?

Dyshidrotic eczema

Psoriasis

Pompholyx

Palmoplantar eczema

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Ischemic strokes are often caused by:

Amyloid deposition

Hypertensive arteriolar disease

Arteriovenous malformation

Atherosclerosis

Intramuscular Penicillin.
Obtain culture for all household members.
Treat with azithromycin (Zithromax) for 10 days.
Treat with amoxicillin for 10 days.

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM

Which of the following agents is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

Haemophilus influenzae

Aspergillosis

Influenza A

covid-19

A nurse practitioner examines a female patient with suspected trichomoniasis, which is a disease cause

by:

An epithelial cell with inclusion bodies
A hypha with spores
A rod-shaped bacterium
A flagellated protozoon

Download Document

Buy This Document

$30.00 One-time purchase

Buy Now

Full access to this document
Download anytime
No expiration

Document Information

Category: EXAM ELABORATIONS

Added: Aug 28, 2025

Description:

NR 667 CEA FNP EXAM NR 667 CEA FNP FINAL EXAM 2025 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ A patient currently undergoing concurrent chemotherapy/radiation treatment for glottic squamous cell carci...

Get this document $30.00

Buy Now