- | P a g e
NR601 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS BANK 2024
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
The daughter of a 79-year-old woman notes that her mother, who has dementia and lives with her, is wetting herself when she attends her new day program. Program staff have requested that "something be done" as she is requiring a clothes change nearly every time she is there. She cannot describe the circumstances of leakage, saying "it just comes." Leakage is uncommon at home.Her medications include donepezil and acetaminophen. Physical examination is normal. Initial treatment approach will require intervention by which of the following?
- Mrs. A's physician
- Mrs. A's daughter
- Day program staff
- Physical therapist through a home care agency - ANSWER- c.
Day program staff
Ms. J, who is 82 years old, complains of urine leakage while playing golf. This has gotten worse over the past year, and she 1 / 4
- | P a g e
rarely makes it through nine holes without feeling like she needs to "run into the bushes and go." Leakage is usually small volume, but causes her extreme embarrassment because she is afraid she will smell of urine. She has tried limiting caffeine in the morning before she golfs and avoiding drinking water while playing, to no effect. She also tried "those Kegler" exercises in the past without success. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for Ms. J?
- Bladder training
- Referral for biofeedback training in pelvic muscle exercise
- Trial of solifenacin
- Trial of topical estrogen - ANSWER- a. Bladder training
What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction in older men?
- Psychological stress
- Adverse drug reaction
- Atherosclerosis
- Autonomic neuropathy - ANSWER- c. Atherosclerosis
Which is the most reasonable first step in the treatment of older men with erectile dysfunction?
- Sex therapy
- Testosterone 2 / 4
- | P a g e
- Yohimbine
- Sildenafil - ANSWER- d. Sildenafil
A 72-year-old woman reports vaginal dryness that interferes with coitus. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Medications are glyburide, chlorthalidone, and acetaminophen. What would be your first step in therapy?
- Stop glyburide
- Stop chlorthalidone
- Stop acetaminophen
- Start topical vaginal lubricant - ANSWER- b. Stop
chlorthalidone
A 70-year-old woman reports sexual pain with deep penetration only. What is the most likely cause of her problem?
- Vaginal atrophy
- Provoked vulvar vestibulodynia
- High-tone pelvic floor dysfunction
- Endometriosis - ANSWER- c. High-tone pelvic floor
- / 4
dysfunction
- | P a g e
A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?
- Adjuvant chemotherapy
- Adjuvant chemotherapy with irradiation
- Adjuvant irradiation only
- Hormonal therapy only
- None of the above - ANSWER- D. Hormonal therapy only
An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate- specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man's prostate problem?
- Transrectal ultrasound and biopsy
- / 4