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NUR 265 EXAM 1 NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
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A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?a."Minimize or abstain from caffeine." b."Lie on your side until the attack subsides." c."Use your oxygen when you experience PACs." d."Take amiodarone (Cordarone) daily to prevent PACs." -
ANSWER-ANS: A
PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse should explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress.Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control 1 / 4
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symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first should try lifestyle changes to control them.
A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The
monitor displayed the rhythm shown below:
VTACH
Which action should the nurse take first?a.Assess airway, breathing, and level of consciousness.b.Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip.c.Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator.d.
Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). - ANSWER-ANS:
A Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse should first assess if the client is alert 2 / 4
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and breathing. Then the nurse should call a Code Blue and begin CPR. If this client is pulseless, the treatment of choice is defibrillation. Amiodarone is the antidysrhythmic of choice, but it is not the first action.
The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac
monitor shows the rhythm below:
VFIB
After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next?a.Perform a pericardial thump.b.Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).c.Start an 18-gauge intravenous line.d.Ask the client's family about code status. - ANSWER-ANS: B 3 / 4
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The client's rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse should start CPR. A pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation.The client's code status should already be known by the nurse prior to this event
A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure?a.A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis b.A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension c.A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily d.A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident -
ANSWER-ANS: A
Although most people with heart failure will have failure that progresses from left to right, it is possible to have left-sided
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