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NUR 425 EXAM 3 LATEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM|
COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) AGRADE!!
A preoperative patient receives atropine before induction of anesthesia.The nurse caring for this patient understands that this agent is used to
prevent:
- anxiety.
- bradycardia.
- dry mouth.
- hypertension. - Correct Answer - B (Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, is
used as an adjunct to anesthesia to counter the effects of vagal stimulation, which is caused by surgical manipulations that trigger parasympathetic reflexes, resulting in bradycardia. Atropine is not an anxiolytic. Atropine causes dry mouth and sometimes is used to minimize bronchial secretions.)
When titrating an analgesic to manage pain, what is the priority goal?
- Administer smallest dose that provides relief with the fewest side effects.
- Titrate upward until the client is pain free.
- Titrate downwards to prevent toxicity.
- Ensure that the drug is adequate to meet the client's subjective needs. -
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Correct Answer - A (The goal is to control pain while minimizing side effects. For severe pain, the medication can be titrated upward until pain is controlled. Downward titration occurs when the pain begins to subside.Adequate dosing is important; however, the concept of controlled dosing applies more to potent vasoactive drugs.)
pg. 2 Dobutamine (Dobutrex) improves cardiac output and is indicated for use in
all of the following conditions except:
- septic shock
- congestive heart failure
- arrhythmias
- pulmonary congestion - Correct Answer - C (Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is
not used to treat arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are conditions are conditions that respond to dobutamine.)
Which of the following effects of calcium channel blockers causes a reduction in blood pressure?
- Increased cardiac output
- Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
- Decreased renal blood flow
- Calcium influx into cardiac muscles - Correct Answer - B
For a cognitively impaired client who cannot accurately report pain, what is the first action that you should take?
- Closely assess for nonverbal signs such as grimacing or rocking.
- Obtain baseline behavioral indicators from family members.
- Look at the MAR and chart, to note the time of the last dose and
- Give the maximum PRS dose within the minimum time frame for relief. -
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response.
Correct Answer - B (Complete information from the family should be obtained during the initial comprehensive history and assessment. If this information is not obtained, the nursing staff will have to rely on observation of nonverbal behavior and careful documentation to determine pain and relief patterns.)
pg. 3 A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per
minute. The nurse assesses the cardiac rhythm as:
- Normal sinus rhythm
- Sinus bradycardia
- Atrial fibrillation
- First-degree heart block. - Correct Answer - A (This rhythm is NSR. The
P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is less than 0.2 seconds. The QRS complex is less than 0.12 seconds. The heart rate is between 60-100 BPM.)
A nurse notices frequent artifact on the ECG monitor for a client whose leads are connected by cable to a console at the bedside. The nurse examines the client to determine the cause. Which of the following items is *unlikely* to be responsible for the artifact?
- Frequent movement of the client
- Tightly secured cable connections
- Leads applied over hairy areas
- Leads applied to the limbs - Correct Answer - B (Motion artifact, or
"noise," can be caused by frequent client movement, electrode placement on limbs, and insufficient adhesion to the skin, such as placing electrodes over hairy areas of the skin. Electrode placement over bony prominences also should be avoided. Signal interference can also occur with electrode removal and cable disconnection.)
A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but over 100. The nurse determines that
the client is experiencing:
- Premature ventricular contractions 3 / 4
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- Ventricular tachycardia
- Ventricular fibrillation
- Sinus tachycardia - Correct Answer - B (Ventricular tachycardia is
characterized by the absence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (usually greater than 0.14 second), and a rate between 100 and 250 impulses per minute. The rhythm is usually regular.)
A nurse is viewing the cardiac monitor in a client's room and notes that the client has just gone into ventricular tachycardia. The client is awake and alert and has good skin color. The nurse would prepare to do which of the following?
- Immediately defibrillate
- Prepare for pacemaker insertion
- Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously
- Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) intravenously - Correct Answer - C
(First-line treatment of ventricular tachycardia in a client who is hemodynamically stable is the use of anti-dysrhythmics such as amiodarone (Cordarone), lidocaine (Xylocaine), and procainamide (Pronestyl). Cardioversion also may be needed to correct the rhythm (cardioversion is recommended for stable ventricular tachycardia).Defibrillation is used with pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Epinephrine would stimulate and already excitable ventricle and is contraindicated.)
A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular tachycardia?
- Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily
- Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds
- Lie down flat in bed
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