NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam

pg. 1 NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Prep Test Bank With 400 Practice Questions and Correct Answers with Rationales / Nurs 5315 Final Exam Prep/ Nurs 5315 Advanced Patho Test Bank

A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n) _____ wound.

• Exit
• Intermediate range entrance
• Contact range entrance
• Indeterminate range entrance

C

Contact range entrance wound is a distinctive type of wound when the gun is held so the muzzle rests on or presses into the skin surface; in addition to the hole, there is searing of the edges of the wound from flame and soot or smoke on the edges of the wound.It is unlikely it is an exit wound since there is only one wound and it has seared edges and gunpowder fragments.Intermediate range entrance wound is surrounded by gunpowder tattooing or stippling.Indeterminate range entrance wound occurs when flame, soot, or gunpowder does not reach the skin surface, but the bullet does.A 15-year-old female presents to the ER following a physical assault. She has internal damage to the neck with deep bruising. X-ray reveals fractures of the hyoid bone and tracheal and cricoid cartilage. Which of the following most likely caused her injuries?

• Chemical asphyxiation
• Choking asphyxiation 1 / 4

pg. 2

• Ligature strangulation
• Manual strangulation

D

Squeezing of the neck as with strangulation would fraction the hyoid bone.Chemical asphyxiation would lead to breathing problems but would not result in fracture.Choking asphyxiation would lead to swelling of tissues but would not result in fracture.In ligature strangulation, the mark on the neck is horizontal without the inverted V pattern seen in hangings. It would not lead to fracture.A 55-year-old male has swelling of the feet. Which of the following aided in development of swelling?

• Increased ATP
• Chloride movement out of the cell
• Na+ movement into the cell
• Decreased oncotic pressure

C

When sodium and water enter the cell freely, cellular swelling, as well as early dilation of the endoplasmic reticulum, results.Decreased ATP would lead to swelling, not increased ATP.Chloride movement out of the cell would affect muscle contraction and does not lead to swelling. Increased oncotic pressure would not affect swelling.A family presents to their primary care provider reporting headache, nausea, weakness, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

• Lead exposure
• Carbon monoxide poisoning
• Ethanol exposure
• Mercury poisoning

B

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pg. 3 Symptoms related to carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, giddiness, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), nausea, weakness, and vomiting.Although nausea and vomiting can occur with lead exposure, lead toxicity is primarily manifested by convulsions and delirium and, with peripheral nerve involvement, wrist, finger, and sometimes foot paralysis.Ethanol exposure has CNS effects and would not affect the whole family.Mercury poisoning is manifested by CNS effects and would not lead to nausea and vomiting.When planning care for the pregnant patient, the nurse will recall that the

mammary glands enlarge as a consequence of:

• Compensatory hyperplasia
• Hormonal hyperplasia
• Hormonal anaplasia
• Compensatory anaplasia

B

An increase in the mammary glands during pregnancy is a result of hormonal changes. The number of mammary cells increases in response to increased hormone levels.Hyperplasia is correct, but it is not a compensatory response, but a hormonal response. Hormonal is correct, but the growth is due to an increased number of cells, not enlargement.Compensatory is not correct, nor is anaplasia, a reversal to more immature cells.Mammary enlargement is a normal response.A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular

changes would be referred to as:

• Dysplasia
• Pathologic dysplasia
• Hyperplasia
• Pathologic hyperplasia

D

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pg. 4 Because the changes are due to an imbalance, they would be considered pathologic hyperplasia. The endometrial changes were not abnormal in size and shape; thus, it is not dysplasia.The description of alteration in hormone levels is pathologic.Hyperplasia is not as accurate as pathologic because there is an imbalance of hormone levels.A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with hepatocellular cancer secondary to hepatitis

• If the cancerous region of the liver were removed, the remaining cells would

undergo:

• Pathologic hyperplasia
• Pathologic metaplasia
• Compensatory hyperplasia
• Compensatory aplasia

C

Compensatory hyperplasia is an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate.The cells become compensatory and would not be pathologic.Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, sometimes less differentiated, cell type.Aplasia is not a compensatory mechanism.A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with cervical cancer after a Pap smear. Which of the following cellular changes would the nurse most likely see on the report?

• Metaplasia
• Atrophy
• Hypertrophy
• Dysplasia

D

When cervical cells become cancerous, they have undergone dysplasia, a change in the size and shape of cells.The cells have changed; they have not been replaced, so metaplasia is not the correct choice.

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