PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 2025 UPDATED STUDY GUIDE 350

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 – 2025 UPDATED STUDY GUIDE | 350

MOST TESTED QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | GUARANTEED PASS FOR NURSING & ALLIED HEALTH

THE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 REVIEW PROVIDES THE MOST

COMMONLY TESTED QUESTIONS IN CELLULAR AND SYSTEMIC

FUNCTIONAL CHANGES, HELPING STUDENTS UNDERSTAND HOW

DISEASES BEGIN AND PROGRESS. THIS 2025 STUDY RESOURCE

GUARANTEES A PASS THROUGH HIGH-YIELD CONTENT AND

EXAM-STYLE PRACTICE DESIGNED TO BUILD STRONG CLINICAL

THINKING SKILLS FOR NURSING AND HEALTH SCIENCE STUDENTS .

An ordered photographic display of a set of chromosomes from a single cell is a(n):

• metaphase spread.
• autosomal spread.
• karyotype.
• anaphase spread. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

An error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis is termed:

• aneuploidy.
• nondisjunction.
• polyploidy.
• anaplasia. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

A somatic cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called:

• an aneuploid cell.
• a euploid cell.
• a polyploidy cell.
• a haploid cell. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. Which of the following describes this condition?

• Euploidy
• Triploidy

• Tetraploidy
• Aneuploidy - CORRECT ANSWER-c

If a person is a chromosomal mosaic, the person may:

• be a carrier of the genetic disease.
• have a mild form of the genetic disease.
• have two genetic diseases.
• be sterile as a result of the genetic disease. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

The most common cause of Down syndrome is:

• paternal nondisjunction.
• maternal translocations.
• maternal nondisjunction.
• paternal translocations. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Risk factors for Down syndrome include:

• fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus.
• increased paternal age.
• family history of Down syndrome.
• pregnancy in women over age 35. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a

single X chromosome present. Her condition is called:

• Down syndrome.
• Cri du chat syndrome.
• Turner syndrome.
• Edward syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-c

A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child's parents are first cousins.

Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of:

• X inactivation.

• genomic imprinting.
• consanguinity.
• obligate carriers. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Joey, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. He inherited this

condition through a:

• sex-linked dominant trait.
• sex-influenced trait.
• sex-limited trait.
• sex-linked recessive trait. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is

associated with:

• penetrance.
• recurrence risk.
• expressivity.
• delayed age of onset. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

People who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease; this is because of the

genetic principle of:

• penetrance.
• expressivity.
• dominance.
• recessiveness. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene.

• X-linked dominant
• X-linked recessive
• autosomal dominant
• autosomal recessive - CORRECT ANSWER-d

To express a polygenic trait:

• genes must interact with the environment.
• several genes must act together.
• multiple mutations must occur in the same family.
• in situ cloning must occur. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

The gradual increase in height among the human population over the past 100 years is an example

of:

• polygenic trait.
• multifactorial trait.
• crossing over.
• recombination. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

A couple has three offspring: one child with an autosomal dominant disease trait and two who are normal. The father is affected by the autosomal dominant disease, but the mother does not have the disease gene. What is the recurrence risk of this autosomal dominant disease for their next child?

A) 50%

B) 33%

C) 25%

• Impossible to determine - CORRECT ANSWER-a

A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following?

• XY
• XX

C) XYY

• XXY - CORRECT ANSWER-d

A 5-year-old male presents with mental retardation and is diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to cause this syndrome?

• Translocation
• Inversion

• Nondisjunction
• Duplication at fragile sites - CORRECT ANSWER-d

The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is

called the disease:

• genotype.
• allele.
• phenotype.
• dominance. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following genetic diseases manifests with progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood?

• Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• Cystic fibrosis
• Achondroplasia
• Huntington disease - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Which of the following types of genetic disorders is the most common cause of miscarriage?

• Autosomal dominant
• Autosomal recessive
• X-linked recessive
• Chromosomal - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of an autosomal recessive pedigree?

• On average, 50% of the children will have the autosomal recessive disease if one parent has the

disease.

• Males are affected more than females.
• On average, 25% of the children are affected by the autosomal recessive disease if both parents

are carriers.

• There is a decreased risk of disease with consanguinity. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following is an accurate characterization of an X-linked recessive pedigree?

• Disease is seen more often in males than females.
• A pattern of skipped generations is rare.
• Males are gene carriers.
• Mothers usually transmit the disease to their daughters. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

The process by which RNA directs the synthesis of protein is called:

• termination.
• transcription.
• promotion.
• translation. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. This condition is an example of:

• gene imprinting.
• an autosomal recessive trait.
• an autosomal dominant trait.
• a sex-linked trait. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to:

• treat disease.
• protect cells from injury.
• prevent cellular aging.
• speed up cellular death. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Cellular atrophy involves:

• an increase in cell size.
• a decrease in cell size.
• an increase in the number of cells.
• a decrease in the number of cells. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

The process of cellular atrophy is accomplished through which of the following processes?

• Loss of fluid
• Decreased cell division
• Inhibition of enzyme formation
• Formation of autophagic vacuoles - CORRECT ANSWER-d

In compensatory hyperplasia, growth factors stimulate cell division in response to:

• tissue loss.
• decreased hormonal stimulation.
• ischemia.
• puberty. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to:

• neoplasia (cancer).
• dysplasia.
• metaplasia.
• all of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

In response to an increased workload, such as that caused by high blood pressure (hypertension),

myocardial cells in the left ventricle will adapt through the process of:

• atrophy.
• hypertrophy.
• hyperplasia.
• dsyplasia. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

The process of muscle hypertrophy involves an increase in:

• cell division.
• water accumulation.
• protein synthesis.
• plasma membrane thickness. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papillomavirus results in cervical:

• atrophy.
• dysplasia.
• metaplasia.
• hormonal hyperplasia. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by:

• another type of cell.
• abnormal cells of the same tissue type.
• scar tissue.
• cancer cells. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

The most common cause of hypoxic injury is:

• free radicals.
• malnutrition.
• chemical toxicity.
• ischemia. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Tissue ischemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation result in:

• cellular dehydration.
• decreased ATP production.
• calcium accumulation outside the cell.
• increased protein synthesis. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Lysosomal rupture during hypoxic injury leads to:

• cellular acidosis.
• sodium influx.
• cellular adaptation.
• autodigestion of cells. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Free radical injury can be caused by all of the following factors except:

• tissue damage by antioxidants.
• radiation injury.
• tissue reperfusion following ischemia.
• enzymatic metabolism of chemicals. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Vitamin E, vitamin C, and beta-carotene are molecules in food that act as:

• poisons.
• free radicals.
• receptor blockers.
• antioxidants. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Lead poisoning affects nervous system function by which of the following mechanisms?

• Lead blocks oxygen delivery to the brain by binding with hemoglobin.
• Lead interferes with neurotransmitter release.
• Lead causes nervous tissue necrosis.
• Lead inhibits fatty acid oxidation in the brainstem. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

The population group most vulnerable to lead poisoning is:

• children.
• pregnant women.
• male adolescents.
• the elderly. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Which of the following organs is most frequently affected by ethanol injury?

• Heart
• Kidneys
• Liver
• Stomach - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following molecules accumulates in liver cells as a result of alcohol abuse?

• Water
• Fat (lipids)
• Protein
• Iron - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Fetal exposure to alcohol during pregnancy can result in:

• low birth weight.
• mental retardation.
• death.
• all of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Why is carbon monoxide exposure a life-threatening condition?

• Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin and prevents normal oxygen transport to tissues.
• Inhalation of carbon monoxide interferes with oxygen diffusion in the lungs.
• Carbon monoxide causes the release of toxic amounts of iron from the tissues.
• Carbon dioxide removal from the tissues is inhibited. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

A contusion injury results in:

• tearing of the skin.
• the removal of superficial skin layers.
• entrance and exit wounds.
• bleeding in the skin or underlying tissues. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

What are the primary factors contributing to oncosis from hypoxic injury?

• Decrease in ATP production and sodium movement into the cell
• Injury to the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
• Increase in ATP production and potassium movement out of the cell
• Accumulation of lipids and pigments in the cell - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs after severe hypoxic injury to which of the following organs?

• Brain
• Heart
• Adrenals
• Pancreas - CORRECT ANSWER-a

The process by which cells program themselves to die is called:

• karyolysis.
• apoptosis.
• pyknosis.
• necrosis. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Osmosis describes the movement of:

• electrolytes.
• glucose.
• water.
• blood. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentrations in the intracellular fluid

(ICF)?

• Sodium
• Calcium
• Magnesium
• Potassium - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Capillary oncotic pressure is primarily determined by which of the following molecules?

• Glucose
• Sodium
• Albumin

• Water - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Edema can result from all of the following alterations except:

• decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
• decreased capillary oncotic pressure.
• lymphatic obstruction.
• increased capillary membrane permeability. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Symptoms of dehydration include:

• decreased urine output.
• increased skin turgor.
• increased blood pressure.
• edema. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

What is the purpose of vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability during inflammation?

• To bring white blood cells to the area of injury
• To transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury
• To dilute toxins
• All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER-d

The first cell to react to tissue injury is the:

• macrophage.
• mast cell.
• fibroblast.
• neutrophil - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Which of the following stimuli are known to induce mast cell degranulation?

• Thermal injury
• The presence of toxins
• Immunologic tissue injury

• All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER-d

The process of a phagocyte squeezing through retracted endothelial cells to enter into the tissues is

called:

• fusion.
• diapedesis.
• phagocytosis.
• margination. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Prior to engulfment of a bacterium during phagocytosis, which of the following events must occur?

• Release of lysosomal enzymes
• Fusion
• Recognition and adherence
• Formation of a phagolysosome - CORRECT ANSWER-c

In addition to phagocytosis, which of the following functions are also performed by macrophages?

• Release of growth factors and stimulating new blood vessel growth
• Destroying circulating antibodies
• Inhibiting inflammation
• Promotion of blood clotting - CORRECT ANSWER-a

A monocyte is a circulating white blood cell that transforms into which of the following cells once it enters the tissue during an inflammatory response?

• Neutrophil
• Macrophage
• Mast cell
• Fibroblast - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Cells defend against viral invasion through the production and secretion of:

• histamine.
• interferon.

• growth factors.
• prostaglandins. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Opsonization promotes the process of:

• phagocytosis.
• vasodilation.
• increased vascular permeability.
• clotting. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Warmth and redness of the skin are indicators of inflammation. Which of the following processes is responsible for this clinical manifestation?

• Increased vascular permeability
• Phagocytosis
• Vasoconstriction
• Vasodilation - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of a persistent bacterial infection?

• Fibrinous
• Serous
• Hemorrhagic
• Purulent - CORRECT ANSWER-d

One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever, which is induced by several

mediators, including:

• histamine.
• interferon.
• interleukin 1.
• nitrous oxide. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following cells plays an active role in collagen deposition during wound contraction and scar tissue formation?

• Mast cell
• Macrophage
• Fibroblast
• Osteocyte - CORRECT ANSWER-c

If the surface barriers such as the skin or mucus membranes are breached, the second line of

defense in innate immunity is the:

• lymph node.
• lymphocyte response.
• inflammatory response.
• memory cells. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

If a person has innate resistance to a disease, the person has _____ immunity.

• natural
• native
• active acquired
• passive - CORRECT ANSWER-a

A child fell off the swing and scraped her knee. The injured area becomes red and painful. Which of the following would also occur?

• Vasoconstriction
• Decreased RBC concentration at injured site
• Fluid movement from tissue to vessels
• Edema at injured site - CORRECT ANSWER-d

The mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through the

process of:

• cytokinesis.
• endocytosis.
• degranulation.

• hemolysis. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

A 13-year-old female fell on her knee while skating. The area became inflamed and sore to touch.Which of the following would result from activation of the plasma system secondary to her injury?

• Mast cell degranulation
• Release of cellular products
• Cellular infiltration
• Pathogenic invasion - CORRECT ANSWER-c

A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection). Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?

• Serous
• Purulent
• Hemorrhagic
• Fibrinous - CORRECT ANSWER-d

In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response:

• is more effective at fighting microorganisms.
• is faster.
• recognizes specific invaders.
• has no memory. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

The primary cell of immunity is the:

• mast cell.
• macrophage.
• neutrophil.
• lymphocyte. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Humoral immunity is generated through the process of:

• direct cell lysis.

• stimulating an inflammatory response.
• producing antibodies.
• secreting toxic molecules. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

If a person has resistance to a disease from natural exposure to an antigen, the person has which form of immunity?

• Natural
• Innate
• Passive acquired
• Active naturally acquired - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Molecules that are capable of inducing an immune response are called:

• lymphocytes.
• haptens.
• antigens.
• antibodies. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following is an example of an endogenous antigen?

• Poison ivy
• Injected medications
• Pollen
• The body's own tissue - CORRECT ANSWER-d

The condition in which the immune cells attack the individual's own tissues as if they were invaders

is called:

• alloimmunity.
• autoimmunity.
• hypersensitivity.
• graft rejection. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Immune cells distinguish "self" from "nonself" by recognizing:

• cellular RNA.
• major histocompatibility antigens.
• different types of phospholipids in a cell's membrane.
• "nonself" enzymes secreted by foreign cells. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Major histocompatibility class I (MHC I) antigens are found on which of the following cells?

• Red blood cells
• B lymphocytes and macrophages only
• All body cells except for red blood cells
• Liver, heart, and bone marrow cells only - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following cells has the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?

• Plasma cells
• T cells
• Memory cells
• Pluripotent cells - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Which cell ingests microorganisms for the purposes of presenting their antigen to the immune system and activating an immune response?

• Helper T cell
• Mast cell
• Neutrophil
• Macrophage - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Which cell stimulates both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?

• Plasma cells
• Cytotoxic T cells
• B lymphocytes
• Helper T cells - CORRECT ANSWER-d

CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages and B cells are found on:

• helper T cells.
• cytotoxic T cells.
• plasma cells.
• the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Which process confers long-lasting immunity against a specific organism?

• Production of memory cells
• Activation of macrophages
• Activation of cytotoxic T cells
• Activation of the inflammatory response - CORRECT ANSWER-a

The predominant antibody of a typical secondary immune response is:

• IgG.
• IgM.
• IgE.
• IgA. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen X again, which of the following immune responses will occur?

• Primary
• Secondary
• Determinant
• Immunosuppressive - CORRECT ANSWER-b

What type of immunity is conferred when an individual is given a vaccine?

• Natural immunity
• Passive acquired immunity
• Active acquired immunity
• Alloimmunity - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?

• Neutralizing bacterial toxins
• Preventing viruses from entering tissue cells
• Direct cell killing through the release of toxic chemicals
• Opsonizing foreign antigen - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Which is the main antibody transferred from a mother to an infant in breast milk?

• IgG
• IgM
• IgE
• IgA - CORRECT ANSWER-d

When a person has an allergic reaction to bee stings, which antibody causes the life-threatening hypersensitivity response?

• IgM
• IgA
• IgE
• IgG - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells can destroy infected or cancer cells by which of the following mechanisms?

• Producing toxins
• Stimulating apoptosis
• Producing antibodies
• Both A and B - CORRECT ANSWER-d

How do natural killer (NK) cells differ from cytotoxic T (Tc) cells?

• NK cells lack antigen-specificity and can target any infected or malignant cell.
• NK cells are phagocytic.
• NK cells can opsonize bacteria and viruses.

• NK cells release toxins that kill the target cell. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

A 20-year-old female has been diagnosed with AIDS. Laboratory testing would reveal diminished

levels of:

• cytotoxic T cells.
• B cells.
• helper T cells.
• T suppressor cells. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with a large tapeworm. Which of the following cells would be produced in response to this worm?

• Monocytes
• Eosinophils
• Neutrophils
• Natural killer cells - CORRECT ANSWER-b

When a person has an allergic reaction to a bee sting, which type of hypersensitivity response is occurring?

• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
• Type IV - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following antibodies?

• IgG
• IgD
• IgM
• IgE - CORRECT ANSWER-d

The most severe type I hypersensitivity response is:

• eczema.

• allergic rhinitis.
• serous otitis.
• anaphylaxis. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Which cells are stimulated by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

• Mast cells
• Macrophages
• B lymphocytes
• T lymphocytes - CORRECT ANSWER-a

In type II hypersensitivity, tissue injury is caused by:

• autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
• autoantibody stimulation of NK cells that destroy target cells.
• autoantibody opsonization of target cells and subsequent phagocytosis.
• all of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that get deposited on vessel walls or in extravascular tissue?

• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
• Type IV - CORRECT ANSWER-c

A positive tuberculin skin test for detecting the presence of tuberculosis is indicative of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
• Type IV - CORRECT ANSWER-d

What is the effect of repeated exposure to an allergen in an atopic individual?

• The allergic response gets worse.
• Antibody production is suppressed.
• Antibody formation remains constant.
• Tc cell activity increases significantly. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Desensitization therapy improves allergies by which of the following mechanisms?

• Producing antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE
• Decreasing the amount of IgE in the body
• Decreasing the amount of antigen in the bloodstream
• Decreasing the responsiveness of the bronchi and blood vessels to histamine - CORRECT

ANSWER-a

Which of the following features is characteristic of a type IV hypersensitivity?

• Antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity
• Delayed response
• Usually life-threatening
• Mediated by the complement system - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Type IV hypersensitivities, such as poison ivy reactions, are initiated by:

• B cells that release IgD 24 to 48 hours after exposure.
• the release of neutrophil chemotactic factor.
• the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
• the release of large quantities of IgE. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

What type of reaction occurs when the body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person?

• Type I hypersensitivity
• Autoimmune
• Alloimmune
• Immunosuppressive - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Autoimmunity can result from all of the following hypersensitivities except:

• type I.
• type II.
• type III.
• type IV. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Manifestations of the autoimmune disease SLE include:

• wheezing, eczema, and itching.
• pulmonary edema, leg swelling, and vein distention.
• arthritic joint pain, pleuritic chest pain, and rash.
• nasal polyps, headache, and rhinorrhea. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

A person with type O blood has which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells?

• A and B
• Rh
• O
• None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER-d

Transfusion of A-negative blood to an O-positive individual will have which of the following results?

• Improved red blood cell count
• Clumping and lysis of red blood cells
• Production of anti-B antibodies
• An Rh incompatibility reaction - CORRECT ANSWER-b

Individuals with immunodeficiencies are at risk for:

• hypersensitivity reactions.
• fungal infections only.
• opportunistic infections.
• autoimmune diseases. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

The microorganism that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a:

• gram-negative bacterium.
• gram-positive bacterium.
• retrovirus.
• protozoan. - CORRECT ANSWER-c

The microorganism that causes AIDS can be transmitted through:

• heterosexual intercourse.
• breast milk.
• blood transfusions.
• all of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-d

HIV inserts its genetic material by binding to the _____ on the helper T cell.

• gp 120 receptor
• CD8 receptor
• CD4 receptor
• phospholipids - CORRECT ANSWER-c

After initial infection with the HIV, most individuals:

• experience severe symptoms of AIDS.
• have mild flu-like symptoms.
• have low levels of circulating antibodies against HIV.
• manifest with central nervous system symptoms. - CORRECT ANSWER-b

If blood cell counts from an individual with AIDS were analyzed, you would expect to see very low

quantities of:

• Th cells.
• mast cells.
• red blood cells.
• neutrophils. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Serious systemic fungal infections and parasitic infections usually only develop in individuals who

are:

• immunocompromised.
• young.
• virally infected.
• allergic. - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Vaccine can be formed from all of the following agents except:

• a live, infectious antigen.
• an attenuated antigen.
• a dead antigen.
• a detoxified toxin - CORRECT ANSWER-a

Which pair of relatives has the highest chance of sharing both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other?

• Mother and daughter
• Father and son
• Siblings
• Mother and father - CORRECT ANSWER-c

Type I hypersensitivity reaction - CORRECT ANSWER-o IgE mediated

• Against environmental antigens (allergens)
• IgE finds to Fc receptors on surface of mast cells (cytotropic antibody)
• Histamine release
• H1 and H2 receptors occurs
• Antihistamines in rxn
• Manifestations: Itching, urticaria, conjunctivitis, rhinitis, hypotension, bronchospasm,

dysrhythmias, GI cramps and malabsorption

Ex: Hay fever

Type II hypersensitivity - CORRECT ANSWER-o Tissue specific - IgG/IgM

• Specific cell or tissue (tissue-specific antigens) is the target of an immune response

Does not destroy the target cell- malfunction

• Five mechanisms
• Cell is destroyed by antibodies and complement
• Cell destructions through phagocytosis
• Soluble antigen may enter the circulation and deposit on tissues
• Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

5. Causes target cell malfunction- ex: myasthenia gravis

Ex: immediate drug reaction(allergy), hemolytic anemia, grave's disease(autoimmune), transfused bld cells, hemolytic disease of newborn(alloimmne)

Histamine acts through H1 receptors by: - CORRECT ANSWER-contracting bronchial smooth muscles, causing brochial constriction, increasing vascular permeability, which causes edema and vasodiltion. Leads to an increase in blood flow to affected area.

H2 receptors interact with histamine results in: - CORRECT ANSWER-increase in gastric acid secretion and a decrease in histamine released from mast cells and basophils

Type III Hypersensitivity - CORRECT ANSWER-o Immune complex mediated - IgG/IgM

• Antigen-antibody complexes formed in the circulation and later deposited in vessel walls or extra

vascular tissues

• Not organ specific
• Immune complex clearance

-Large-macrophages

• Small-renal clearance
• Intermediate- deposit in tissues - joint disease

Serum Sickness, Raynaud's phenomena, Lupus

Type IV Hypersensitivity - CORRECT ANSWER-o Mediated by T lymphocytes- Don't involve antibody -Destruction of the tissue usually caused by direct killing by toxins from Tc cells

• Th1 cells produce cytokines that recruit phagocytes, especially macrophages
• Examples: acute graft rejection, skin test for TB, contact allergic reactions (poison ivy), and some

autoimmune diseases - diabetes, contact dermatitis (allergy), hashimoto thyroiditis, Rheumatoid arthritis (autoimmune), graft rejection(alloimmune)

aneuploid cell - CORRECT ANSWER-variation of chromosomal number that causes a cell to have too many or too few chromosomes; total number of chromosomes is not a multiple of 23 as it is in triploidy or tetraploidy.

complementary base pairing - CORRECT ANSWER-the consistent pairing of adenine & thymine and of guanine & cytosine; ensures accurate replication of DNA.

Cri du chat syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-condition caused by deletion on chromosome 5; child has cat-like cry, low birth weight, mental retardation, microcephaly and heart defects

Down syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-trisomy-21; most well known aneuploidy, occurs in about 1:800 live births; characterized by mental retardation, sterility, poor muscle tone, congenital heart defects, characteristic facial features and lowered life expectancy (about 60 years).

Duplication - CORRECT ANSWER-excess genetic material; usually less severe than deletions

Euploid - CORRECT ANSWER-cells with a normal number of chromosomes (diploid = 46, haploid = 23)

Expressivity - CORRECT ANSWER-the extent of variation in a phenotype associated with a particular genotype

Klinefelter Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-individuals with XXY karyotype, may have moderate mental impairment, male appearance but may have hypogonadism and sterility, high pitched voice and mosaicism (duel XXY & XY karyotypes).

Triploidy - CORRECT ANSWER-mutation that causes cells to have 3 copies of each chromosome, resulting in 69 chromosomes; incompatible with life

Turner Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-monoploidy of sex chromosome (karyotype 45, X); may cause learning diabilities, short stature, coarctation of aorta and sterility.

abrasion - CORRECT ANSWER-results from removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object

adaptation - CORRECT ANSWER-A reversable, structural, or functional response both to normal (physiologic) conditions and to adverse (pathologic) conditions in order to maintain homeostasis.

algor mortis - CORRECT ANSWER-postmortem reduction in body temp

asphyxial injury - CORRECT ANSWER-injury caused by failure of cells to receive or use oxygen

bilirubin - CORRECT ANSWER-normal yellow-green pigment of bile derived from the porphyrin structure of hemoglobin; excessive levels cause jaundice; unconjugated bilirubin is lipid soluble and can damage cell membranes

blunt force injury - CORRECT ANSWER-mechanical injury to body resulting in tearing, shearing, or crushing; most common injury seen in healthcare, caused by blows or impact, MVA, and falls

carbon monoxide - CORRECT ANSWER-an odorless, colorless and undetectable gas produced by incomplete combustion of fuels like gasoline; causes hypoxic injury

caseous necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis that usually results from TB infection; the dead cells disintegrate but debris is not fully digested, so tissues resemble soft cheese

chopping wound - CORRECT ANSWER-heavy edged instruments (axes, hatchets, propeller blades, etc) produce wounds with a combination of sharp and blunt force characteristics.

coagulative necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-occurs primarily in kidneys, heart, and adrenal cells; commonly results from hypoxia/ischemia; caused by protein denaturation (particularly albumin)

compensatory hyperplasia - CORRECT ANSWER-an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate; occurs significantly in epidermal and intestinal epithelia, hepatocytes, bone marrow cells, fibroblasts, and some bone, cartilage, and smooth muscle.

contusion - CORRECT ANSWER-bruising; bleeding into skin or underlying tissues

cyanide - CORRECT ANSWER-chemical asphyxiant that blocks the intracellular use of oxygen; signs are similar to carbon monoxide posioning

disuse atrophy - CORRECT ANSWER-atrophy that occurs in skeletal muscles with prolonged periods of non use

dry-lung drowning - CORRECT ANSWER-drowning that occurs with little or no water entering lungs due to vagal nerve mediated larynogospasms; occurs in 15% of drownings

dysplasia - CORRECT ANSWER-abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cels

dystrophic calcification - CORRECT ANSWER-calcification of dying and dead tissues that occurs as a reaction to tissue injury; necrosis is one example

exit wound - CORRECT ANSWER-gunshot injury; has the same appearance regardless of range of fire; size cannot determine if entrance or exit wound; usually has clean edges

fat necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-cellular dissolution caused by lipases that occur most often in breast, pancreas, and abdominal structures; lipases break down triglycerides, which combine with Ca, Mg, and Na ions to form opaque and chalk-white soaps.

fetal alcohol syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-caused by prenatal alcohol exposure; causes growth retardation, facial anomalies, cognitive impairment and occular malformation

frailty - CORRECT ANSWER-clinical syndrome in older adults involving negative energy balance, sarcopenia, and diminished strength and tolerance for exertion, which leaves a person vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disability, disease, and death.

gangrenous necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-death of tissue from hypoxia, commonly from arteiosclerosis and affecting lower leg; may be be classified as dry, where the skin appears brown and wrinkled, or wet, where the skin appears cold, swollen and black as a result of liquefactive necrosis occurring at the site

hemosiderin - CORRECT ANSWER-a yellow-brown pigment derived from hemoglobin; responsible for the yellow color of bruises

hormonal hyperplasia - CORRECT ANSWER-occurs chiefly in estrogen-dependent organs such as the uterus and breast; enables buildup of endometrium in preparation of pregnancy

hydrogen sulfide - CORRECT ANSWER-sewer gas; a chemical asphyxiant, causes brown-tinged blood and nonspecific signs of asphyxiation

hyperplasia - CORRECT ANSWER-an increase in the NUMBER of cells, resulting from an increased rate of cellular division

hypertrophy - CORRECT ANSWER-increase in the SIZE of cells and consequently in the size of the affected organ

hypoxia - CORRECT ANSWER-lack of sufficient oxygen; most common cause of cell injury

ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER-reduced blood supply; often caused by ateriosclerosis or thombosis

karyolysis - CORRECT ANSWER-nuclear dissolution and lysis of chromatin from the action of hydrolytic enzymes

laceration - CORRECT ANSWER-tear or rip resulting when tensile strength of skin or tissue is exceeded; injury is ragged and irregular with adbraided edges

liquefactive necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-commonly results from ischemic injury to nerve and glial cells in brain; injured cells release hydrolases that digests brain tissue; tissue becomes soft, liquefies, and segregates, forming cysts. May be caused by staph, strep, or E. coli infections.

livor mortis - CORRECT ANSWER-a purple discoloration that occurs postmortem as gravity causes blood to pool in the lowest tissues

metaplasia - CORRECT ANSWER-the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, sometimes less differentiated, cell type

metastatic calcification - CORRECT ANSWER-mineral deposits that occur in undamaged tissues due to hypercalcemia

necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-the sum of cellular changes after local cell death, characterized by the rapid loss of the plasma membrane, organelle swelling, mitochrondrial dysfunction, and lack of typical features of apoptosis.

oxidative stress - CORRECT ANSWER-occurs when free radicals overwhelm endogenous antioxidant systems

pathologic atrophy - CORRECT ANSWER-atrophy that occurs as a result of decreases in workload, pressure, use, blood supply, nutrition, hormonal or nervous stimulation.

pathologic hyperplasia - CORRECT ANSWER-the abnormal proliferation of normal cells, usually in response to excessive hormonal stimulation or growth factors on target cells

physiologic atrophy - CORRECT ANSWER-atrophy that occurs early in development, like with the thymus gland

postmortem autolysis - CORRECT ANSWER-postmortem putrification changes that begin to occur 24-48 hours after death; caused by the release of enzymes and lytic dissolution.

puncture wound - CORRECT ANSWER-injury caused by instrument or object with sharp points but no sharp edges (such as a nail); prone to infection, have abrasions of edges and can be very deep

pyknosis - CORRECT ANSWER-type of nuclear dissolution where the nucleus shrinks and becomes a small, dense mass of genetic material

reperfusion injury - CORRECT ANSWER-injury that results from the restoration of oxygen following hypoxic event due to oxidative stress which causes further cell membrane damage and mitochondrial calcium overload

rigor mortis - CORRECT ANSWER-the stiffening of muscles that occurs after death due to depletion of ATP, causing detachment of myosin from actin in muscle cells

stab wound - CORRECT ANSWER-a penetrating sharp force injury that is deep than it is long; wound may be almost closed by tissue pressure, causing little superficial bleeding despite copious internal bleeding

ubiquitin - CORRECT ANSWER-Small protein that is linked to other proteins as a way of marking the targeted protein for degradation by proteasomes.

ubiquitin-proteosome pathway - CORRECT ANSWER-the primary pathway of protein catabolism

vacuolation - CORRECT ANSWER-formation of vacuoles in the cytoplasm and swelling of lysosomes and mitochondria result from damage to the outer membrane if O2 is not restored

xenobiotics - CORRECT ANSWER-toxic, mutagenic, and carcinogenic chemicals; bind to lipoproteins and can penetrate lipid bilayer

albumin - CORRECT ANSWER-protein in plasma that protects cells by binding with unconjugated bilirubin

lead - CORRECT ANSWER-The ability to increase intracellular calcium concentrations and affect the nervous and hematopoietic systems is a characteristic of

tattooing - CORRECT ANSWER-The appropriate term for fragments of burning or unburned

pieces of gunpowder that are embedded in the epidermis is:

caseous - CORRECT ANSWER-Tuberculous infections are likely to result in a form of necrosis

called:

What are causes of atrophy? - CORRECT ANSWER-aging disuse (skeletal tissue) ischemia [restriction in blood supply to tissue] (heart, brain) inadequate nutrition decrease in work load, use, blood supply, hormones, and nervous stimulation

Examples of atrophy - CORRECT ANSWER-skeletal muscle: person with cast, spinal cord injury, bed rest patient

heart atrophy: no blood supply to part of heart, chamber of heart can atrophy

What are causes of hypertrophy? - CORRECT ANSWER-adaptation for loss (kidney) physiological (skeletal muscle) hormone induced (uterus)

Examples of hypertrophy - CORRECT ANSWER-loss of kidney: other kidney enlarges

utreus in pregnancy heart secondary to hypertension or diseased heart valves

How does metaplasia differ from atrophy, hypertrophy, and hyperplasia? - CORRECT ANSWER- reversible replacement of one mature cell by another cell

allows for replacement with cells that are better able to tolerate environmental stresses

When does metaplasia occur? - CORRECT ANSWER-smoking

replacement of normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial (airway) lining by stratified squamous epithelial cells

replacement of ciliated epithelial cells in trachea with non-ciliated cells, airway not protected

Where does dysplasia occur? - CORRECT ANSWER-cervix respiratory tract

epithelia tissue of cervix

What is dysplasia associated with? - CORRECT ANSWER-malignancy neoplastic growths

strong indicator of development of breast cancer

often found adjacent to cancerous cells

Mechanisms of Cellular Injury - CORRECT ANSWER-hypoxia chemical infectious immunologic & inflammatory nutritional imbalances physical agents

What is the most common cause of hypoxia? - CORRECT ANSWER-ischemia: reduction of blood flow

caused by arteriosclerosis (narrowing of arteries/harden arteries) or thrombosis (blockage by blood clots)

Dry gangrene - CORRECT ANSWER-skin shrinks, dry wrinkled, black to brown

skin is atrophied and crackled, occurs in the extremities, looks like prune

Wet gangrene - CORRECT ANSWER-neutophils (WBC) invade - usually internal organs which become cold, swollen and black

slimy, worse odor, occurs in internal organ, bacterial infection with invasion of neutrophils, cold, swollen, black

Angiogenesis - CORRECT ANSWER-The development of new capillaries

Anemia - CORRECT ANSWER-A decrease in circulating hemoglobin and oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood because of decreased erythrocyte production, decreased hemoglobin production, excessive hemolysis, or loss of blood

Antineoplastic - CORRECT ANSWER-A substance or process that destroys neoplastic cells

Leukopenia - CORRECT ANSWER-A decreased number of leukocytes in the blood

Metastasis - CORRECT ANSWER-Spread of cancer cells to distant sites by the blood or lymphatics; secondary malignant tumor

Thrombocytopenia - CORRECT ANSWER-Abnormally low number of thrombocytes or platelets

Clinical indicators of inflammation include all of the following: - CORRECT ANSWER-1) Heat 2) Redness 3) Tenderness 4) Swelling 5) Pain

The cells that produce mediator-containing granules are known as: - CORRECT ANSWER-Mast cells

Septicemia is an infection of: - CORRECT ANSWER-the blood

Fibrinogen - CORRECT ANSWER-A blood protein concerned with blood coagulation

Bradykinin is a - CORRECT ANSWER-chemical mediator of inflammation, part of the kinin system

Leukotrienes - CORRECT ANSWER-Source: Synthesis from arachidonic acid in mast cells

Action: Vasodilation & increased capillary permeability, chemotaxis

Prostaglandins - CORRECT ANSWER-Source: Synthesis from arachidonic acid in mast cells Action: Vasodilation & increased capillary permeability, pain, fever, potentiate histamine effect

Chemotaxis - CORRECT ANSWER-The movement of cells toward or away from an area of the body in response to chemical signals; (i.e. phagocytic cells move to an area of tissue injury)

Resolution - CORRECT ANSWER-Minimal tisse damage; damaged cells recover quickly and return to normal

Regeneration - CORRECT ANSWER-Cells are capable of mitosis, when necessary, to help fill in the tissue where cells were destroyed

Replacement - CORRECT ANSWER-Connective tissue takes place when there is extensive tissue damage or the cells are incapable of mitosis

types of mechanical defense - CORRECT ANSWER--intact skin: 1st defense, microorganism can't penetrate

-mucous membranes:

-cilia: sweep away microorganism

-washing: tearing of the eyes, flow of urine, saliva

-peristalis: shoves the microorganisms out the other end

types of chemical defense - CORRECT ANSWER--digestive juices: break down microorganisms with acid

-antibacterial substances in secretion: long chain fatty acids

microorganisms' defenses against hosts - CORRECT ANSWER-capsules invasiveness production of fibrin shields growth & reproduction intracellularly

exotoxins - CORRECT ANSWER-very potent proteins that produce specific physiologic effects (good for vaccines)

endotoxins - CORRECT ANSWER-not particularly strong antigens that produce non-specific effects and are part of structure of the organism such as the cell membrane

granulomas - CORRECT ANSWER-chronic inflammatory lesion that stays relatively localized (not very invasive) and occupies space

What is critical in the initiation of immune response? - CORRECT ANSWER-Macrophage- B and T Lymphocytes

what immunity response develops when T cells link with and antigen and is recognized as an invader then destroys it? - CORRECT ANSWER-Cell-mediated immunity

B lymphocyte - CORRECT ANSWER-Humoral immunity-activated cell becomes and antibody- producing plasma cell or a B memory cell

T lymphocyte - CORRECT ANSWER-White blood cells; cell-mediated immunity

which lymphocyte acts primarily against bacteria and viruses? - CORRECT ANSWER-B lymphocyte

What occurs during the second exposure leading to an allergic reaction? - CORRECT ANSWER- Large amounts of chemical mediators are released from mast cells into the general circulation very quickly

Effects of anaphlaxis - CORRECT ANSWER-Vasodilation- lowering of Blood Pressure Nerve endings irritated- itching Constriction of bronchioles, release of mucus- airways obstructed, cough, dyspnea

Secondary or Acquired Immunodeficiency - CORRECT ANSWER-refers to loss of the immune response resulting from specific causes and may occur at any time during the lifespan

1st exposure to foreign antigens, in an allergic reaction, causes - CORRECT ANSWER-Production of antibodies, sensitization of mast cells

Candida - CORRECT ANSWER-Harmless fungus normally present on the skin- common cause of vaginal infection in immunodeficient individuals