Pharmacology HESI Exam Test Bank

EXAM ELABORATIONS Sep 4, 2025
Loading...

Loading document viewer...

Page 0 of 0

Document Text

Pharmacology HESI Exam Test Bank 2025/2026

Part 1: Questions 1–40

  • A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which adverse effect
  • should the nurse monitor for?A.Hypoglycemia B.Persistent dry cough C.Hypernatremia D.Increased heart rate

Answer:B

Rationale:Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough due to increased bradykinin levels. Hypoglycemia is not associated with ACE inhibitors, as they do not affect blood glucose. Hypernatremia is unlikely; lisinopril may cause hyperkalemia. Increased heart rate is not typical, as ACE inhibitors may lower heart rate indirectly by reducing blood pressure.

  • A client receiving vancomycin IV for MRSA needs monitoring for which adverse effect?
  • A.Ototoxicity B.Hypoglycemia C.Hypertension D.Hypernatremia

Answer:A

Rationale:Vancomycin, an antibiotic, can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, re- quiring monitoring for hearing loss or tinnitus. Hypoglycemia, hypertension, and hy- pernatremia are not associated with vancomycin.

  • A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the best
  • patient teaching point?A.Administer at bedtime B.Mix with short-acting insulin C.Expect peak effects in 2–4 hours D.Inject in the arms only

Answer:A

Rationale:Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is typically administered at bedtime for steady glucose control. It should not be mixed with other insulins, has no significant peak, and injection sites should rotate across the abdomen, thighs, and arms.

  • A client on warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation requires which laboratory mon-
  • itoring?A.Platelet count B.INR C.Serum creatinine D.Blood urea nitrogen

1 1 / 4

Answer:B

Rationale:Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using INR (therapeutic range 2–3 for atrial fibrillation). Platelet count is relevant for antiplatelet drugs, not warfarin.Creatinine and BUN assess renal function, not warfarin’s effects.

  • A client receiving morphine sulfate reports constipation. What is the nurse’s priority
  • action?A.Administer a laxative as prescribed B.Decrease the morphine dose C.Encourage a low-fiber diet D.Monitor bowel sounds

Answer:A

Rationale:Morphine, an opioid, causes constipation. Administering a prescribed

laxative (e.g., docusate) is the priority. Decreasing the dose may compromise pain control, a low-fiber diet worsens constipation, and monitoring is secondary.

  • A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbal-
  • ance is most likely?A.Hyperkalemia B.Hypokalemia C.Hypernatremia D.Hypermagnesemia

Answer:B

Rationale:Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, risking hy- pokalemia. Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, and hypermagnesemia are less likely.

  • A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol (Proventil). What is its mechanism of
  • action?A.Reduces airway inflammation B.Relaxes bronchial smooth muscles C.Decreases mucus production D.Inhibits histamine release

Answer:B

Rationale:Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, relaxes bronchial smooth muscles for bron- chodilation. It does not primarily reduce inflammation (corticosteroids), decrease mu- cus, or inhibit histamine.

  • A client with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which adverse effect should
  • the client report?A.Increased appetite B.Gingival hyperplasia C.Mild nausea D.Weight gain

Answer:B

Rationale:Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia, requiring dental follow- up. Increased appetite, mild nausea, and weight gain are not typical.

2 2 / 4

  • A client on heparin has a PTT of 120 seconds. What is the nurse’s priority action?
  • A.Continue the infusion B.Stop the infusion and notify the provider C.Administer protamine sulfate D.Monitor for bleeding

Answer:B

Rationale:A PTT of 120 seconds is elevated (therapeutic range 60–80 seconds),

indicating bleeding risk. Stopping the infusion and notifying the provider is the priority.Protamine sulfate requires orders, and monitoring is secondary.

  • A client with GERD is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the priority teaching
  • point?A.Take 30–60 minutes before meals B.Avoid antacids C.Expect immediate relief D.Take at bedtime only

Answer:A

Rationale:Omeprazole, a PPI, is most effective taken 30–60 minutes before meals.It can be taken with antacids, does not provide immediate relief, and is not restricted to bedtime.

  • A client is ordered 500 mg of amoxicillin every 8 hours. The pharmacy provides 250
  • mg capsules. How many capsules per dose?A.1 capsule B.2 capsules C.3 capsules D.4 capsules

Answer:B

Rationale:500 mg ÷ 250 mg/capsule = 2 capsules. One capsule provides 250 mg,

three capsules provide 750 mg, and four capsules provide 1000 mg, which are incorrect.

  • A client with depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse
  • monitor initially?A.Increased suicidal ideation B.Hypotension C.Hyperglycemia D.Weight loss

Answer:A

Rationale:SSRIs like fluoxetine may increase suicidal ideation initially, requiring close monitoring. Hypotension, hyperglycemia, and weight loss are not primary con- cerns.

  • A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which condition is a contraindi-
  • cation?A.Hypertension B.Renal impairment

3 3 / 4

C.Hyperlipidemia D.Asthma

Answer:B

Rationale:Metformin is contraindicated in renal impairment due to lactic acidosis risk. Hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and asthma are not contraindications.

  • A client with a pulmonary embolism is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox). What is the
  • priority action?A.Monitor for bleeding B.Inject in the deltoid C.Check blood glucose D.Encourage ambulation

Answer:A

Rationale:Enoxaparin, a low-molecular-weight heparin, increases bleeding risk. Mon- itoring for bleeding (e.g., bruising, hematuria) is critical. Injections are given in the abdomen, not deltoid. Glucose and ambulation are not priorities.

  • A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which laboratory value is critical?
  • A.Serum sodium B.Serum lithium levels C.Blood urea nitrogen D.Blood glucose

Answer:B

Rationale:Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range (0.6–1.2 mEq/L), requiring serum level monitoring to prevent toxicity. Sodium affects lithium excretion but is secondary.

  • A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. What is the priority teach-
  • ing point?A.Taper the dose to avoid adrenal insufficiency B.Take on an empty stomach C.Avoid calcium-rich foods D.Expect weight loss

Answer:A

Rationale:Prednisone suppresses adrenal function, and abrupt discontinuation risks adrenal insufficiency. It should be taken with food, calcium-rich foods prevent osteo- porosis, and weight gain is common.

  • A client is ordered 2 g of cefazolin IV every 6 hours. The vial contains 1 g reconstituted
  • with 10 mL sterile water (100 mg/mL). How many mL per dose?A.10 mL B.15 mL C.20 mL D.25 mL

Answer:C

Rationale:2 g = 2000 mg. At 100 mg/mL, 2000 mg ÷ 100 mg/mL = 20 mL. 10 mL

  • / 4

Download Document

Buy This Document

$30.00 One-time purchase
Buy Now
  • Full access to this document
  • Download anytime
  • No expiration

Document Information

Category: EXAM ELABORATIONS
Added: Sep 4, 2025
Description:

Pharmacology HESI Exam Test Bank Part 1: Questions 1–40 1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for? A.Hypoglycemia B.Pers...

Get this document $30.00